Category: Uncategorized

Nurse Deployment Program 2018

Department of Health (DOH) will once again will hire nurses for over 22,000 vacancies around the country under the Nurse Deployment Project (NDP) in 2018.

DOH NDP is part of Human Resource for Health (HRH) Deployment Programs which recruits nurses, doctors, dentists, midwives, medical technologists, and other allied health professionals for deployment to rural health units, birthing homes, barangay health stations and other areas in grassroots level around the Philippines.

Health Secretary Paulyn Jean Ubial said that they are increasing the number of health workers under the HRH 2018 to a total of 25,000, as recommended by World Health Organization (WHO).

“In our 2018 proposal, we included around P9 billion in the budget, hiring around 25,000 new health providers…. Because the recommendation of WHO, you have to have a team at the primary level to address the health care needs of the public. And you need around 24 varied healthcare providers for every 10,000 population. Currently, we only have 14 for every 10,000 population at the frontline,” Ubial said in an interview over Manila Bulletin.

“We’re hiring varied professionals, doctors, nurses, midwives, dentists, pharmacists, med-techs…but the majority are nurses. Around 22,000 are allocated. Currently we have 15,000 nurse deployment program applicants and hires but in 2018, that will increase to 22,000. About 7,000 increase,” she added.

The agency also increased the slots for doctors. “For doctors, we are currently hiring around 300, and we will increase that to around 500 by 2018,” she said.

Interested health workers may go to the nearest DOH regional offices and apply for their desired position. Hiring period is up to December, and deployment period will be from January to December 2018.

Meaning of MRSA : Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

Meaning of AVPU: Alert, voice, pain, unconsciousness.

Which is not a step in tuckmans formation theory: accepting.

During blood transfusion, patient exhibit loin pain, pyrexia: adverse transfusion reaction.

Patient taking allopurionol what to advice: encourage to drink 2-3 liters of fluid.

A community nurse observes a student nurse using her phone while at a client’s home: politely speak to the student and encourage her to participate in the discussion.

A sexually active university student will be travelling to areas with high risk of diarrhea what to advice: educate her to avoid oral contraceptives and use condom because diarrhea reduces the effect contraceptives.

Tabs 2.5mg to be administered per house how many tabs to be administered in 24 hours.

a.60 b. 80 c. 90

A drug is prescribed daily 7.50mg available in 2.5mg how many caps to be administered per dose.

Dangerous sites for Intramuscular injection : Abdomen

Subcutaneous insulin injection at what angle. a. 45 degrees, b. 90 degrees, c. 40 degrees.

Patient is to receive a medication prescribed 55mg and weighs 3mg/kg, whats the dose to be administered.

Amoxicillin is prescribed 500mg tds and available 250mg, how many caps to administer in a single dose.

100ml of saline is administered in half an hours how many ml will be infused in an hour. Answer: 200ml in an hour

A nurse needs to be proficient in fluid volume balance a client’s intake is 2738mls with an output of 750 whats the fluid balance.

A patient suffered CVA patient has difficulty speaking and swallowing: refer to Salt.

Before administering care the first thing a nurse needs to do: a. wash hands, b. check consent, c. put the curtains.

How to dispose of infected lines: red bag that disintegrate in high temperature.

A client is to receive digoxin the nurse should ensure she checks the rate, rhythm, amplitude of the heart rate.

The immediate priority of a post op patient: asses and maintain airway.

Purpose of clinical audit

According to NMC code the nurse delegate washing of a patient to a health care assistant: who is accountable

A patient receiving chemotherapy which has been researched to be least likely beneficial to the patient: crystal therapy.

A notifiable disease that needs to be reported by the doctor on a national level: tuberculosis.

A 17 year old who was involved in a vehicular accident is admitted in the orthopedic unit, patient is noticed not eating the meals she ordered even though she’s in her recovery stage: regression.

Patient was assessed and score medium using the must tool: observe intake and output for 3 days.

A client is prescribed fentanyl patch what to advice the patient, family and carers of the signs and symptoms: shallow and slow respiration, increase sleepiness.

The least reason why early ambulation is encouraged in a post op patient: operation site wound infection.

You saw a senior nurse beating a child: Intervene on the spot in a non-confrontational manner, inform nurse in charge.

Worst advice to give a student about social media: Never identify yourself as a nurse

Gingival bleeding gums indicate: Poor diet

Patient cannot speak English: professional interpreter

A nurse notices a thin, emaciated child among patient relatives, when nurse offers food, the mother says he doesn’t eat much: suspect child neglect and inform manager for possible investigation.

A nurse delegate duties to HCA: nurse is accountable for every action and overall care of the patient.

Patient assessed as having bedsore with shallow wound up to the dermis, red color and no slough: Stage 2

Which of the following does not protect a patient from clinical environment: air conditioner

Signs to expect when inserting oropharyngeal airway when inserted correctly/ incorrectly: retching and vomiting

Who is responsible in disposing sharps: the one who uses it

Before surgery, patient BMI is to low: Refer to dietician

Loss of ability to speak/read: aphasia

Contingency theory:

What is not included in emails? Any abnormal result

What is the role of NMC?

Care, Compassion, Competence, Communication, Courage, Commitment : they are 6’cs

A patient has sexual interest in you, your response? Try to reestablish the therapeutic com and relationship with the px and ask manager for support.

A client with fluid volume deficit will exhibit: hypotension

Px relative has episodes of vomiting and diarrhea wants to visit him: Advise to come back 48 hours after symptom free

Not a sign of depression: increased energy

Px says can I tell u a secret: relevant info affecting his health will be shared with the medical team

Pt wants to leave against medical advice, the doctor is not happy. According to MCA what to do: Call hospital security and make the px stay until the doctor finish his assessment.

COPD ABG: increased PCo2, decreased Po2 44.

How to transport controlled drugs: Show your id badge to the pharmacist, securely bring the meds to the px home and administer. Have a competent person to sign and witness the act

Why NGT drugs should be discarded after 8 weeks: NGT drugs are sensitive to light and plastic and the effect diminishes if used longer

Who is responsible for safeguarding: All health care professionals

Who are prone to COAD: Male, obese, hypertensive, sedentary lifestyle, smoker.

Proper technique for eye instillation: head tilt backward in midline

Common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious? Tongue falling back

Waterlow score 20: dynamic mattress or air loss air bed

Fruits per serving: 5 portions

CPD units: 35

Common site for aneurysm: Abdominal Aorta

Oral anticoagulant: INR

Community hospital services: Rehabilitation, acute and primary care, occupational therapy, step down for discharged clients: Other answers have no occupational therapy, so I choose this one.

Depressed px is feeling happy: she has finalized her suicide plan.

An 83-year old lady just lost her husband. Her brother visited the lady in her house. He observed that the lady is acting okay but it is obvious that she is depressed. 3weeks after the husband’s death, the lady called her brother crying and was saying that her husband just died. She even said, “I can’t even remember him saying he was sick.” When the brother visited the lady, she was observed to be well physically but was irritable and claims to have frequent urination at night and she verbalizes that she can see lots of rats in their kitchen. Based on the manifestations, as a nurse, what will you consider as a diagnosis to this patient? Ans: urinary tract infection leading to delirium.

You are to take charge of the next shift of nurses, the in charge of the current shift informed you that two of your nurses will be absent. Since there is a shortage of staff in your shift, what will you do? ANS: inform the nurse lead or manager to make provision for registered nurse support.

An elderly complaints to you that his neighbour is stealing money from him : Raise a safeguarding alert and fill the incident report form and investigate the matter.

Muslim patient is asking for female doctor: Assess the patient if the condition of the can wait while making arrangements for female doctor.

One of our dropped this link which contains resources he used for the nmc test of competence part 1. You can download lots of CBT Sample Questions with Answers and NMC CBT Blueprint.

To download click Here

INTRODUCTION

NURSING PROFESSION is one of the oldest Professions known to mankind and acknowledges the complexities of the nature of man. The single dominant intellectual and practice essence of Nursing, acquired through comprehensive Nursing education is CARING. It is a learned humanistic and scientific discipline which is directed towards assisting people of different, cultural and social background by skillfully using caring act and process in order to help maintain healthy styles of living, of preventing illness state and regaining wellness by restorative caring modalities.

It is therefore pertinent to state that for the holistic need and nature of man to be met, the science of Nursing is not negotiable.

Nursing as a profession came into existence, rested, savoured and consolidated its position by developing its own language, rituals, ethics, arts and sciences from the physical needs of the patients, the principles and concepts of prevention, its own body of traditions, attitudes, culture and values which were mainly drawn from the army and religious orders. High discipline with stern reprimands formed the foundation of the profession and developed with it.

PROFESSIONALISM IN NURSING

A profession is a disciplined group of individuals that created, adopted and adhered to ethical standards. The group possess special knowledge and skills in a widely recognized body of learning derived from research, education and training at a high level, recognized by the public (professional standards council, 2016) in which they apply the acquired knowledge and skills. Professionals are governed by codes of ethics, and commitment to competence, integrity and morality, altruism, and the promotion of the public good within their expert domain and accountable to those they served and to society (Sylvia, Johnson & Cruess, 2004). Professionalism on the other side, can be seeing as the personal philosophy as relate to one’s own attitude as a professional. It entails the way an individual carry out his/her professional duty as transmit to its ethical principles.

THE NURSE, WHO IS A NURSE?
According to Oxford Advanced Learner’s Dictionary, 6th edition, A Nurse is a person whose job is to take care of the sick or injured people, usually in a Hospital.

The World Health Organization (WHO) defined a Nurse in the African sub-region (to which Nigeria belongs) as “a person who having received prescribed education and training, has acquired knowledge, skills and attitude in the promotion of health, the prevention of illness and the care of the sick. Thus, making him or her an integral member of a health team, capable of solving within the limit of his or her competence the health problems which arise in the community”

The International Council of Nursing (ICN, in 2015) defined a Nurse as a person who has completed a program of basic, generalized nursing education and is authorized by the appropriate regulatory authority (as in case in Nigeria, the NMCN) to practice nursing in his or her own country.

The Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria (NMCN) defined a Nurse as a “person who has received authorized education, acquired specialized skills, and attitude and is Registered and licensed by the a regulatory body (in Nigeria, NMCN), to provides, promotes, preventive, restorative and rehabilitative care to individuals, families and the communities independently and in collaboration with other members of the health team” (NMCN, 2009).

WHAT IS MENACE OF QUACKERY? AND WHO IS A QUACK?

Menace is defined as a person or thing that is likely to cause harm; a threat or danger.

The Advanced Learner’s Dictionary of Current English, 6th edition defined quackery as the methods or behavior of somebody who pretends to have medical knowledge; according to Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia, defined quackery as the promotion of fraudulent or ignorant medical practices, Common elements of general quackery include questionable diagnoses using questionable diagnostic tests, as well as untested or refuted treatments, especially for serious diseases such as cancer, HIV/AIDs.

Stephen Barrett of Quackwatch defines quackery “as the promotion of unsubstantiated methods that lack a scientifically plausible rationale” and more broadly “anything involving over promotion in the field of health.” This definition includes questionable ideas as well as questionable products and services, regardless of the sincerity of their promoters. Where the situation involves deliberate deception, it is often described as “health fraud” with the salient characteristics of aggressive promotion.

Quackery is the promotion of deceitful or an ill-informed medical practice.

WHO IS A QUACK?

A quack is a fraudulent or ignorant pretender to medical skill or a person who pretends, professionally or publicly to have knowledge or qualification he/she does not possess. For example, some patent medicine dealers performing surgical operations. Quacks received their training from unregistered and unregulated facilities for such training; their practices are not regulated as there is no agency recognized by law to do so. Quacks have no ethical codes and standards to guide their actions and activities. There is no standard to measure their performance and rate their quality of goods and services. A quack has no career progression and scheme of services hence they are ready to collect any amount from their employers.

CAUSES OF QUACKERY IN NURSING PROFESSION IN NIGERIA

•COST: There are some people who simply cannot afford conventional treatment, and seek out a cheaper alternative. Nonconventional practitioners can often dispensed treatment at a much lower cost. This is compounded by reduced access to healthcare facilities.
•FEAR OF SIDE EFFECTS: A great variety of pharmaceutical medications can have very distressing side effects, and many people fear surgery and its consequence, so they may opt to shy away from these mainstream treatments.
•IGNORANCE: Those who perpetuate quackery may do so to take advantage of ignorance about conventional medical treatments versus alternative treatments, or may themselves be ignorant regarding their own claims. Mainstream medicine has produced many remarkable advances, so people may tend to also believe groundless claims.
•DISTRUST OF CONVENTIONAL MEDICINE: Many people, for various reasons, have distrust of conventional medicine, or of the regulating organizations such as NAFDAC, or major drug corporations. For example the Pfizer drug test case in Kano that cause deformities and other related issues can result in disenfranchisement (discrimination) in conventional medical settings and resulting in distrust
•DESPERATION: People with serious or terminal disease, or who have been told by their practitioner that their condition is “untreatable”, may react by seeking out treatment, disregarding the lack of scientific proof for its effectiveness, or even the existence of evidence that the method is ineffective or even dangerous. Despair may be exacerbated by lack of palliative non-curative-end-of-life care.
•PRIDE: Occasionally, once people found that they have endorsed or defended a cure, or invested time and money in it, they may be reluctant or embarrassed to later admit its ineffectiveness and therefore recommend a treatment that does not work.
•FRAUD: For financial reward, some practitioners, fully aware of the ineffectiveness of their medicine, may intentionally produce fraudulent scientific studies and medical test results, thereby confusing any potential consumers as to the effectiveness of the medical fit.
•CONFIRMATION BIAS: This is also known and called “myside bias”, it’s the tendency to interpret, or prioritize information in a way that confirms one’s beliefs or hypotheses. It is a type of cognitive bias and a systematic error of inductive reasoning.
•REGRESSION FALLACY: There is also this lack of understanding that some health conditions change with no treatment and attributing changes in ailments to a given therapy.

EFFECTS OR MENACE OF QUACKERY IN NURSING PROFESSION

1)Quackery in Nursing profession is the bane of the numerous misconceptions about nursing and the Nurse in Nigeria and globally. Some of these misconceptions are:
a)The belief that nurses are not intelligent enough to study medicine.
b)That Nurses are incapable of independent thought and need to be given instructions by Medical doctors.
c)That a Nurse can be trained anywhere.
d)That the female ones flirt with male Medical doctors
e)That anybody (female) with white gown and cap is a Nurse.
2)It affects the image of the profession and the practitioners, as many wrongs perpetuated in a hospital setting by these quacks are most time blamed on Nurses.
3)Quackery in the Nursing profession in Nigeria, underrates the profession in the eyes of the people, since it is perceived that, without a formal education, one can become a Nurse.
4)Quackery in the Nursing profession is capable of deceasing the weight and value of the certificate issued by the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria to qualified Nurses and Midwives in Nigeria.
5)Quackery in the Nursing profession is capable of affecting the growth and development of the profession, as quacks infiltrate its file and rank and pollute the demand for qualified Nursing personnel for quality care.
6)Quackery in the Nursing Profession decreases the quality of service delivery to the people, thereby increasing the level of complications resulting in higher health bills to the individual, the family, the community and the Government.

RECOMMENDATIONS TO CURB/ERADICATE QUACKERY IN NURSING PROFESSION IN NIGERIA

i)There should be access to an affordable and qualitative healthcare services across the country
ii)Regulatory agencies such as the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria (NMCN) should be adequately funded to play their regulatory and supervisory roles, particularly in the areas of inspection and monitoring of services provider centers.
iii)Citizens, particularly the qualified Nurses/Midwives must collaborate with relevant Authorities to expose quacks and their trainers.
iv)The Government at all levels (Local, State and Federal) through the National Orientation Agency should reactivate and invigorate the enlightenment of the citizens on the dangers of patronizing quacks. And those training them should be identified and promptly prosecuted.
v)The professional Association (National Association of Nigeria Nurses and Midwives, NANNM), particularly the private sector unit, must ensure they work closely with the NMCN by exposing quacks, their trainers and their employers to sanitize the profession.
vi)Appropriate legislation be put in place/strengthening to ensure culprits are adequately punished and their victims adequately compensated by the quacks.

CONCLUSION
Quackery in the Nursing profession is not only a danger to the profession, but carries a lot of health hazard on the citizens, the family, the community and the Government as outlined above and we strongly believed if all the steps suggested here above are taken by all concerned, the menace of quacks and quackery in the Nursing profession can be reduced to the barest minimum.

THANKS FOR YOUR ATTENTION.

REFERENCES
– Oxford Advanced Learner’s Dictionary, 6th edition
– Resuscitation technique, a paper presented by Nrs. A.D.Yahaya at Edebo and NANNM FCT Council workshop, 2009.
– Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Shortlisted candidates include:
1. Alli-Balogun Gbemisola Faruk
2. Hammid Habibat Olaitan
3. Adegoke Abimbola Yinka
4. Uzoma Willaim Chidozie
5. Nwaije Florence Chika
1. Adeleke Oluseyi Adedayo
2. Onaimor Mamuzo Faith
3. Ejovierhe Tega
4. Babatunde Anuoluwapo Christiana
5. Abdulaziz Tajuddin ishola
6. Oyetola Elizabeth Makinwa
7. Adeleke Abiodun Joseph
8. Opera Rita Ubaku
9. Ugochukwu Rose Ogechi
10. Egejuru Linda Chioma
11. Ubazuonu Obianuju Annuli
12. Daring Nandak Bentu
13. Nasiru Rakiya
14. Okafor Nneka Maureen
15. Niar Marceluna Ojong
16. Majekodunmi Abosede Eunice
17. Oyeniyi Omorinsola Elizabeth
18. Rufus Raphael Awoala
19. Ndeyara Timothy Barimue
20. Ugwu Onyinyechi M
21. Samuel Gwakzing George
22. Ajibowo Olajumoke Rukayat
23. Olaleye Afolakemi Helen
24. Alli-Balogun Gbemisola Faruk
25. Hammid Habibat Olaitan
26. Adegoke Abimbola Yinka
27. Uzoma Willaim Chidozie
28. Nwaije Florence Chika

Waiting List

Akinwale Sunday Lawrence
Dada Kehinde Joseph
Nweke Kennedy Ebuka
Osanyin Adesola Sefunmi
Akindehin Olayinka Oluwatosin

1. The nurse is giving the client with a left cast crutch walking instructions using the three point gait. The client is
allowed touchdown of the affected leg. The nurse tells the client to advance the:
A. Left leg and right crutch then right leg and left crutch
B. Crutches and then both legs simultaneously
C. Crutches and the right leg then advance the left leg
D. Crutches and the left leg then advance the right leg

2. A patient was diagnosed to have Chron’s disease. What would the patient be manifesting?
A. Blood and mucous in the faeces C. Loss of appetite
B. Fatigue D. Urgent bowel

3. What is Disclosure according to NHS?
A. It is asking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.
4. All but one are signs of anaphylaxis:
A. itchy skin or a raised, red skin rash C. hypertension and tachycardia
B. swollen eyes, lips, hands and feet D. abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting

5. What is comprehensive nursing assessment?
A. It provides the foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater control over their lives and enhance their health status.
B. An in-depth assessment of the patient’s health status, physical examination, risk factors, psychological and social aspects of the patient’s health that usually takes place on admission or transfer to a hospital or healthcare agency.
C. An assessment of a specific condition, problem, identified risks or assessment of care; for example, continence assessment, nutritional assessment, neurological assessment following a head injury, assessment for day care, outpatient consultation for a specific condition.
D. It is a continuous assessment of the patient’s health status accompanied by monitoring and observation of specific problems identified.

6. Define standard precaution:
A. The precautions that are taken with all blood and ‘high-risk’ body fluids.
B. The actions that should be taken in every care situation to protect patients and others from infection,
regardless of what is known of the patient’s status with respect to infection.

C. It is meant to reduce the risk of transmission of bloodbourne and other pathogens from both recognized and
unrecognized sources.
D. The practice of avoiding contact with bodily fluids, by means of wearing of nonporous articles such as gloves, goggles, and face shields.

7. What is the purpose of clamping a chest tube?
A. To prevent further lung collapse and entry of air
B. To minimize the feeling of pain on drain insertion
C. To aid the drain into the correct position.
D. To minimize risk of infection

8. What is not true about compartment syndrome?
A. is a painful and potentially serious condition caused by bleeding or swelling within an enclosed bundle of
muscles
B. it occurs when pressure within a compartment increases and affects the function of the muscle and tissues
C. is defined by a critical pressure increase within a confined compartmental space, causing a decline in the
perfusion pressure to the compartment tissue
D. Compartment syndrome most commonly occurs in compartments in the leg or thigh.

9. What is the best site of buttock injections?
A. Ventrogluteal site B. Dorsogluteal site C. Rectus Femoris D. Greater trochanter area
10. What are the steps for the proper urine collection?
A. Clean meatus with soap and water
B. Catch midstream
C. Dispatch sample to laboratory immediately (within 6 hours)
D. Ask the patient to void her remaining urine into the toilet or bedpan.
A. A, B, & C B. B, C, & D C. A, B, & D D. A, C, & D

11. The doctor is about to insert an IV cannula when he was called to assist in an emergency. The nurse is not experienced in peripheral cannulation. What should the nurse do?
A. Inform the supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.
B. Apply the canula since you have seen it done before.
C. Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.
D. Have a friend help you apply it.

12. What is the purpose of NPO after surgery?
A. To prevent a blood clot C. To facilitate respiration
B. To prevent aspiration D. To prevent embolism

13. Nurses are not using a hoist to transfer patient. They said it was not well maintained. What would you do?
A. make a written report
B. complain verbally
C. take a picture for evidence
D. Do nothing

14. What is not included in the care package in a nursing home?
A. Laundry B. Food C. Nursing Care D. Social Activities

15. What is abduction?
A. any motion of the limbs or other body parts that pulls away from the midline of the body
B. the bending of a joint so as to bring together the parts it connects
C. the straightening of a joint
D. the movement of a body part toward the body’s midline

16. What is compassion?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.

17. What is an intermediate care home?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.

18. Which statement is not correct about the nursing process?
A. An organised, systematic and deliberate approach to nursing with the aim of improving standards in nursing
care.
B. It uses a systematic, holistic, problem solving approach in partnership with the patient and their family.
C. It is a form of documentation.
D. It requires collection of objective data.

19. Why are support stockings used?
A. To help relieve the pain and discomfort C. To prevent new varicose veins from appearing
B. To promote venous flow D. For cosmetic reasons

20. What is the best site to check for oedema?
A. Ankle or foot B. Eyes C. Lungs D. Abdomen

21. All but one describes holistic care:
A. A system of comprehensive or total patient care that considers the physical, emotional, social, economic, and
spiritual needs of the person; his or her response to illness; and the effect of the illness on the ability to meet
self-care needs.
B. It embraces all nursing practice that has enhancement of healing the whole person from birth to death as it’s
goals.
C. An all nursing practice that has healing the person as its goal.
D. It involves understanding the individual as a unitary whole in mutual process with the environment.

22. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What should not be an intervention to this type of patient?
A. Place the patient in a sitting position / upright during and after eating.
B. Water or clear liquids should be given.
C. Instruct the patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
D. Review the patient’s ability to swallow, and note the extent of facial paralysis.

23. Which is not a sign or symptom of baby born with meconium stain?
A. Baby with a loud cry C. slow heartbeat
B. barrel-shaped chest D. rapid or labored breathing

24. A patient underwent an abdominal surgery and will be unable to meet nutritional needs through oral intake. A patient was placed on enteral feeding. How would you position the patient when feeding is being administered?
A. Sitting upright at 30 to 45° C. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
B. Sitting upright at 60 to 75° D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°

25. A patient is being prepared for a surgery and was placed on NPO. What is the purpose of NPO?
A. Prevention of aspiration pneumonia C. For abdominal procedures
B. To facilitate induction of pre-op meds D. To decrease production of fluids

26. It is a condition in which you wake up during the night because you have to urinate.
A. Polyuria B. Oliguria C. Nocturia D. Dysuria

27. You were administering a pre-operative medication to a patient via IM route. Suddenly, you developed a needle-stick injury. Which of the ff interventions will not be appropriate for you to do?
A. Prevent the wound to bleed
B. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
C. Do not suck the wound
D. Dry the wound and over it with a waterproof plaster or dressing

28. Why is pyrexia not evident in the elderly?
A. Due to lesser body fat C. Due to aged hypothalamus
B. Due to immature T cells D. Due to biologic changes

29. When do we need to document?
A. As soon as possible after an event has happened to provide current up to date information about the care
and condition of the patient or client)
B. Every hour
C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
D. At the end of the shift

30. All should be seen in a good documentation except:
A. legible handwriting
B. Name and signature, position, date and time
C. Abbreviations, jargon, meaningless phrases, irrelevant speculation and offensive subjective statements
D. A correct, consistent, and factual data

31. A patient is scheduled to undergo an Elective Surgery. What is the least thing that should be done?
A. Assess/Obtain the patient’s understanding of, and consent to, the procedure, and a share in the decision making process.
B. Ensure pre-operative fasting, the proposed pain relief method, and expected sequelae are carried out and
discussed.
C. Discuss the risk of operation if it won’t push through.
D. The documentation of details of any discussion in the anaesthetic record.

32. A patient experienced sensation of fluttering in his chest, light headedness, & chest pain. The doctor diagnosed him with atrial fibrillation. What is atrial fibrillation?
A. a rare, rapid and disorganised rhythm of heartbeats that rapidly leads to loss of consciousness and sudden
death if not treated immediately
B. episodes of abnormally fast heart rate at rest
C. the heart beats more slowly than normal and can cause people to collapse
D. a heart condition that causes an irregular and often abnormally fast heart rate

33. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?
A. Re-site the cannula C. Apply warm compress
B. Inform the doctor D. Discontinue infusion

34. Which statement is not true about acute illness?
A. A disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course one.
B. It will eventually resolve without any medical supervision.

C. It is rapidly progressive and in need of urgent care.
D. It is prolonged, do not resolve spontaneously, and is rarely captured completely.

35. Taking a nursing history prior to the physical examination allows a nurse to establish a rapport with the patient and family. Elements of the history include all of the ff except:
A. the client’s health status C. social history
B. the course of the present illness D. Cultural beliefs and practices

36. Which is not a sign or symptom of speed shock?
A. Headache B. A tight feeling in the chest C. Irregular pulse D. Cyanosis

37. What is not included in Palliative Care?
A. Psychological support C. Resuscitation
B. Spiritual support D. Pain management

38. All but one is an indication for pleural tubing:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Abnormal blood clotting screen or low platelet count
C. Malignant pleural effusion.
D. Post-operative, for example thoracotomy, cardiac surgery

39. Which is not considered in an oxygen prescription?
A. It should be prescribed.
B. Regular pulse oximetry monitoring must be available in all clinical environments.
C. Can be given to patients who are not hypoxaemic.
D. It must be signed and dated.
40. What is accountability?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.

41. What is primary care?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.

42. What is Advocacy according to NHS Trust?
A. It is taking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.

43. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte levels of a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypokalemia
44. You were the nurse on duty and it’s time to take your patient’s vital signs. Upon checking, you noted that the patient was given Digoxin and now has a heart rate of 50 BPM. What will you do with the next dose of Digoxin?
A. Omit then document C. Administer then document
B. Omit then double the next dose; document D. Administer then recheck VS

45. A patient had been suffering from severe diarrheoa and is now showing signs of dehydration. Which of the following is not a classic symptom?
A. passing small amounts of urine frequently C. dark-coloured urine
B. dizziness or light-headedness D. thirst

46. Signs and symptoms of early fluid volume deficit, except.
A. Decreased urine output C. Concentrated urine
B. Decreased pulse rate D. Decreased skin turgor

47. Which is not an indication for lumbar tap?
A. For patients with increased ICP
B. For diagnostic purposes
C. Introduction of spinal anaesthesia for surgery
D. Introduction of contrast medium

48. Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.
A. Lie the patient supine in bed with the head raised 45–50 cm with a backrest
B. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
C. Sitting upright at 60 to 75°
D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°
49. MRSA means
A. Methilinase – Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
B. Methicillin-Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
C. Methilinase – Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
D. Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

50. Among the following values incorporated in NMC’s 6 C’s, which is not included?
A. Care C. Confidentiality
B. Courage D. Communication

Disclaimer: Note that these questions are just sample questions to help you to pass the NMC CBT exam

1. Which is not a cause of postural hypotension?
A. the time of day B. lack of exercise C. temperature D. recent food intake

2. Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?
A. Headache B. Back pain C. Swelling and bruising D. Nausea and vomiting

3. A client was diagnosed to have infection. What is not a sign or symptom of infection?
A. A temperature of more than 38°C C. Chills and sweats
B. warm skin D. Aching muscles

4. What is respiration?
A. the movement of air into and out of the lungs to continually refresh the gases there, commonly called ‘breathing’
B. movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood, and carbon dioxide from the lungs into the blood, commonly called ‘gaseous exchange’
C. movement of oxygen from blood to the cells, and of carbon dioxide from the cells to the blood
D. the transport of oxygen from the outside air to the cells within tissues, and the transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.

5. You noticed that a colleague committed a medication administration error. Which should be done in this situation?
A. You should provide a written statement and also complete a Trust incident form.
B. You should inform the doctor.
C. You should report this immediately to the nurse in charge.
D. You should inform the patient.

6. A patient on your ward complains that her heart is ‘racing’ and you find that the pulse is too fast to the manually palpate. What would your actions be?
A. Shout for help and run to collect the crash trolley.
B. patient to calm down and check her most recent set of bloods and fluid balance.
C. A full set of observations: blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation and temperature. It is essential to perform a 12 lead ECG. The patient should then be reviewed by the doctor.
D. Check baseline observations and refer to the cardiology team.

7. You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their observations, you discover that they are tachycardic and anxious, with an increased respiratory rate. What could be happening? What would you do?
A. The patient is showing symptoms of hypovolaemic shock. Investigate source of fluid loss, administer fluid replacement and get medical support.
B. The patient is demonstrating symptoms of atelectasis. Administer a nebulizer, refer to physiotherapist for assessment.
C. The patient is demonstrating symptoms of uncontrolled pain. Administer prescribed analgesia, seek assistance from medical team.
D. The patient is demonstrating symptoms of hyperventilation. Offer reassurance, administer oxygen.

8. Why are elderly prone to postural hypotension? Select which does not apply:
A. The baroreflex mechanisms which control heart rate and vascular resistance decline with age.
B. Because of medications and conditions that cause hypovolaemia.
C. Because of less exercise or activities.
D. Because of a number of underlying problems with BP control.

9. When do you see problems or potential problems?
A. Assessment B. Planning C. Implementation D. Evaluation

10. A COPD patient is about to be discharged from the hospital. What is the best health teaching to provide this patient?
A. Increase fluid intake C. Quit smoking
B. Do not use home oxygen D. nebulize as needed

11. A patient is to be subjected for surgery but the patient’s BMI is low. Where will you refer the patient?
A. Speech and Language Therapist C. Chef
B. Dietitian D. Family member

12. All of the staff nurses on duty noticed that a newly hired staff nurse has been selective of her tasks. All of them thought that she has a limited knowledge of the procedures. What should the manager do in this situation?
A. Reprimand the new staff nurse in front of everyone that what she is doing is unacceptable.
B. Call the new nurse and talk to her privately; ask how the manager can be of help to improve her situation.
C. Ignore the incident and just continue with what she was doing.
D. Assign someone to guide the new staff nurse until she is competent in doing her tasks.

13. One busy day on your shift, a manager told you that all washes should be done by 10am. What would you do?
A. Follow the manager and ensure that everything is done on time.
B. Talk to the manager and tell her that the quality of care will be compromised if washes are rushed.
C. Ignore the manager and just continue with what you are doing.
D. Provide a written statement of the incident.

14. What do you have to consider if you are obtaining a consent from the patient?
A. Understanding B. Capacity C. Intellect D. Patient’s condition

15. A nurse documented on the wrong chart. What should the nurse do?
A. Immediately inform the nurse in charge and tell her to cross it all off.
B. Throw away the page
C. Write line above the writing; put your name, job title, date, and time.
D. Ignore the incident.

16. A patient is in the immediate recovery post-surgery. What should you monitor?
A. Breathing B. Temperature C. Blood loss D. Pain

17. You have a DM patient who is non-insulin dependent. How many portions of fruits and vegetables will you administer per day?
A. 3 portions B. 4 portions C. 5 portions D. 6 portions

18. A newly qualified nurse is not yet well versed when it comes to documentation. A nurse-in-charge noticed that this is the case and went to report the new nurse to their manager. What could the newly qualified nurse have done in order to prevent this incident?
A. Ignore the report and just continue with what she was doing.
B. She could have told the manager beforehand in order to have a support and additional training.
C. Apologize that she was not able to inform her immediate head beforehand.
D. Ask for the policies of the hospital in relation to documentation.

19. What ABG readings will you expect among COPD patients?
A. Increased PCO2, decreased PO2 C. Increased PCO2 & PO2
B. Decreased PCO2 & PO2 D. Decreased PCO2, increased PO2

20. A patient was brought to the A&E and manifested several symptoms: loss of intellect and memory; change in personality; loss of balance and co-ordination; slurred speech; vision problems and blindness; and abnormal jerking movements. Upon laboratory tests, the patient got tested positive for prions. Which disease is the patient possibly having?
A. Acute Gastroenteritis C. HIV/AIDS
B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease D. Hepatitis

21. All are risk factors of Coronary Artery Disease except:
A. Obesity B. Smoking C. High Blood Pressure D. Female

22. When would it be beneficial to use a wound care plan?
A. On all chronic wounds C. On all infected wounds
B. On all complex wounds D. On every wound

23. What factors are essential in demonstrating supportive communication to patients?
A. Listening, clarifying the concerns and feelings of the patient using open questions.
B. Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using closed questions.
C. Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using open questions.
D. Listening, reflecting back the patient’s concerns and providing a solution.

24. How do you value dignity & respect in nursing care? Select which does not apply:
A. We value every patient, their families or carers, or staff.
B. We respect their aspirations and commitments in life, and seek to understand their priorities, needs, abilities and limits.
C. We find time for patients, their families and carers, as well as those we work with.
D. We are honest and open about our point of view and what we can and cannot do.

25. When dealing with a patient who has a biohazard specimen, how will you ensure proper disposal? Select which does not apply:
A. the specimen must be labelled with a biohazard
B. the specimen must be labelled with danger of infection
C. it must be in a double self-sealing bag
D. it must be transported to the laboratory in a secure box with a fastenable lid

26. For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key preventative measure? A. Airborne B. Direct Contact C. Droplet D. All of the above

27. What may not be cause of diarrheoa?
A. colitis B. intestinal obstruction C. food allergy D. food poisoning

28. What is the most definitive sign/complication 24 hours after liver biopsy?
A. intraperitoneal haemorrhage C. biliary peritonitis
B. infection D. referred pain

29. UK policy for needle prick injury inclues all but one:
A. Encourage the wound to bleed C. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
B. Suck the wound D. Don’t scrub the wound while washing it

30. The following fruits can be eaten by a person with Crohn’s Disease except:
A. Mango B. Papaya C. Strawberries D. Cantaloupe

31. A patient was recommended to undergo lumbar puncture. As the nurse caring for this patient, what should you not expect as its complications:
A. Swelling and bruising B. Headache C. Back pain D. Infection

32. Mrs Jones has had a cerebral vascular accident, so her left leg is increased in tone, very stiff and difficult to position comfortably when she is in bed. What would you do?
A. Give Mrs Jones analgesia and suggest she sleeps in the chair.
B. Try to diminish increased tone by avoiding extra stimulation by ensuring her foot doesn’t come into contact with the end of the bed; supporting, with a pillow, her left leg in side lying and keeping the knee flexed.
C. Give Mrs Jones diazepam and tilt the bed.
D. Suggest a warm bath before she lies on the bed. Then use pillows to support the stiff limb.

33. A patient is agitated and is unable to settle. She is also finding it difficult to sleep, reporting that she is in pain. What would you do at this point?
A. Ask her to score her pain, describe its intensity, duration, the site, any relieving measures and what makes it worse, looking for non-verbal clues, so you can determine the appropriate method of pain management.
B. Give her some sedatives so she goes to sleep.
C. Calculate a pain score, suggest that she takes deep breaths, reposition her pillows, return in 5 minutes to gain a comparative pain score.
D. Give her any analgesia she is due. If she hasn’t any, contact the doctor to get some prescribed. Also give her a warm milky drink and reposition her pillows. Document your action.

34. A patient has been confined in bed for months now and has developed pressure ulcers in the buttocks area. When you checked the waterlow it is at level 20. Which type of bed is best suited for this patient?
A. water mattress B. Egg crater mattress C. air mattresses D. Dynamic mattress

35. What is positive fluid balance?
A. A deficit in fluid volume.
B. A state when fluid intake is greater than output.
C. Retention of both electrolytes and water in proportion to the levels in the extracellular fluid.
D. A state where the body has less water than it needs to function properly.

36. How should you position a patient after lumbar puncture?
A. flat on bed C. semi-fowlers
B. fowlers D. side-lying

37. Why would the intravenous route be used for the administration of medications?
A. It is a useful form of medication for patients who refuse to take tablets because they don’t want to comply with treatment.
B. It is cost effective because there is less waste as patients forget to take oral medication.
C. The intravenous route reduces the risk of infection because the drugs are made in a sterile environment and kept in aseptic conditions.
D. The intravenous route provides an immediate therapeutic effect and gives better control of the rate of administration as a more precise dose can be calculated so treatment can be more reliable.

38. A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you expect to see?
A. The patient will have a low blood pressure and will have a fast heart rate usually associated with skin and mucosal changes.
B. The patient will have a high blood pressure and will have a fast heart rate
C. The patient will quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to their airway or circulation. This is accompanied by skin and mucosal changes.
D. The patient will experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate and be itchy all over.

39. When is the time to take the vital signs of the patients? Select which does not apply:
A. At least once every 12 hours, unless specified otherwise by senior staff.

B. When they are admitted or initially assessed.
C. On transfer to a ward setting from critical care or transfer from one ward to another.
D. Every four hours.

40. What are the principles of gaining informed consent prior to planned surgery?
A. Gaining permission for an imminent procedure by providing information in medical terms, ensuring a patient knows the potential risks and intended benefits.
B. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information, both verbally and with written material, relating to the planned procedure, for them to read on the day of planned surgery.
C. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by informing them about the procedure and highlighting risks if the procedure is not carried out.
D. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information in understandable terms prior to surgery, allowing time for answering questions, and inviting voluntary participation.

41. What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of breath sit out in a chair?
A. They shouldn’t sit out in a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone with shortness of breath so that there are no negative effects of gravity putting pressure on the lungs.
B. Sitting in a reclining position with the legs elevated to reduce the use of postural muscle oxygen requirements, increasing lung volumes and optimizing perfusion for the best V/Q ratio. The patient should also be kept in an environment that is quiet so they don’t expend any unnecessary energy.
C. The patient needs to be able to sit in a forward leaning position supported by pillows. They may also need access to a nebulizer and humidified oxygen so they must be in a position where this is accessible without being a risk to others.
D. There are two possible positions, either sitting upright or side lying. Which is used is determined by the age of the patient. It is also important to remember that they will always need a nebulizer and oxygen and the air temperature must be below 20° C.

42. If you were told by a nurse at handover to take ‘standard precautions’, what would you expect to be doing?
A. Taking precautions when handling blood and ‘high risk’ body fluids so as not to pass on any infection to the patient.
B. Wearing gloves, an apron and a mask when caring for someone in protective isolation.
C. Asking relatives to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical setting.
D. Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing gloves and an apron when necessary, disposing of used sharp instruments safely, and providing care in a suitably clean environment to protect yourself and the patients.

43. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What would you do?
A. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. Make sure to fill out an incident form.
B. Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist on duty.

C. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t found the police need to be informed.
D. Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. Make sure to fill out an incident form.

44. The following are signs & symptoms of hypovolemic shock, except:
A. Confusion C. Strong pulse
B. Rapid heart rate D. Decrease Blood Pressure

45. The following must be considered in procuring a consent, except:
A. respect and support people’s rights to accept or decline treatment or care
B. withhold people’s rights to be fully involved in decisions about their care
C. be aware of the legislation regarding mental capacity
D. gain consent before treatment or care starts

46. Which is not an appropriate way to care for patients with Dementia/Alzheimer’s?
A. Ensure people with dementia are excluded from services because of their diagnosis, age, or any learning disability.
B. Encourage the use of advocacy services and voluntary support.
C. Allow people with dementia to convey information in confidence.
D. Identify and wherever possible accommodate preferences (such as diet, sexuality and religion).

47. All but one, are characteristics of an ideal wound dressing:
A. Cost-effective B. allows gaseous exchange C. Low humidity D. absorbent

48. A 45-year old patient was diagnosed to have Piles (Haemorrhoids). During your health education with the patient, you informed him of the risk factors of Piles. You would tell him that it is caused by all of the following except:
A. Straining when passing stool
B. being overweight
C. Lack of fibre in the diet
D. prolonged walking

49. Which behaviours will encourage a patient to talk about their concerns?
A. Giving re assurance and telling them not to worry.
B. Asking the patient about their family and friends.
C. Tell the patient you are interested in what is concerning them and that you are available to listen.
D. Tell the patient you are interested in what is concerning them and if they tell you, they will feel better.

50. What is the difference between denial and collusion?
A. Denial is when a healthcare professional refuses to tell a patient their diagnosis for the protection of the patient whereas collusion is when healthcare professionals and the patient agree on the information to be told to relatives and friends.
B. Denial is when a patient refuses treatment and collusion is when a patient agrees to it.
C. Denial is a coping mechanism used by an individual with the intention of protecting themselves from painful or distressing information whereas collusion is the withholding of information from the patient with the intention of ‘protecting them’.
D. Denial is a normal acceptable response by a patient to a life threatening diagnosis whereas collusion is not.

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