NMC CBT Sample Questions and CBT Exam Practice 3

1. A patient is admitted to the ward with symptoms of acute diarrheoa. What should your initial management be?
A. Assessment, protective isolation, universal precautions.
B. Assessment, source isolation, antibiotic therapy.
C. Assessment, protective isolation, antimotility medication.
D. Assessment, source isolation, universal precautions.

2. What should be included in your initial assessment of your patient’s respiratory status?
A. Review the patient’s notes and charts, to obtain the patient’s history.
B. Review the results of routine investigations.
C. Observe the patient’s breathing for ease and comfort, rate and pattern.
D. Perform a systematic examination and ask the relatives for the patient’s history.

3. What should be included in a prescription for oxygen therapy?
A. You don’t need a prescription for oxygen unless in an emergency.
B. The date it should commence, the doctor’s signature and bleep number.
C. The type of oxygen delivery system, inspired oxygen percentage and duration of the therapy.
D. You only need a prescription if the patient is going to have home oxygen.

4. What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary tract infection?
A. The doctor has requested a midstream urine specimen.
B. The patient has a urinary catheter in situ, and the patient’s wife states that he seems more forgetful than
C. The patient has spiked a temperature, has a raised white cell count (WCC), has new- onset of confusion
and the urine in his catheter bag is cloudy.
D. The patient has complained of frequency of faecal elimination and hasn’t been drinking enough.

5. You are caring for a patient who was told to be in a “source isolation”. What would you do and why?
A. Isolating a patient so that they don’t catch any infections.
B. Nurse the patient in isolation, ensure that you wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and
adhere to strict hand hygiene, for the purpose of preventing the spread of organisms from that patient to
C. Nursing an individual who is regarded as being particularly vulnerable to infection in such a way as to
minimize the transmission of potential pathogens to that person.
D. Nursing a patient who is carrying an infectious agent that may be a risk to others in such a way as to
minimize the risk of the infection spreading elsewhere in their body.
6. Why should healthcare professionals take extra care when washing and drying an elderly patient’s skin?
A. As the older generation deserve more respect and tender loving care (TLC).
B. As the skin of an elder person has reduced blood supply, is thinner, less elastic and has less natural oil. This
means the skin is less resistant to shearing forces and wound healing can be delayed.
C. All elderly people lose dexterity and struggle to wash effectively so they need support with personal hygiene.
D. As elderly people cannot reach all areas of their body, it is essential to ensure all body areas are washed well
so that the colonization of Gram-positive and negative micro-organisms on the skin is avoided.

7. How can risks be reduced in the healthcare setting?
A. By adopting a culture of openness and transparency and exploring the root causes of patient safety incidents.
B. Healthcare will always involve risks so incidents will always occur; we need to accept this.
C. Healthcare professionals should be encouraged to fill in incident forms; this will create a culture of ‘no
D. By setting targets which measure quality.

8. You are told a patient is in ‘source isolation’. What would you do and why?
A. Isolating a patient so that they don’t catch any infections.
B. Nursing an individual who is regarded as being particularly vulnerable to infection in such a way as to
minimize the transmission of potential pathogens to that person.
C. Nurse the patient in isolation, ensure that you wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and
adhere to strict hand hygiene, for the purpose of preventing the spread of organisms from that patient to
D. Nursing a patient who is carrying an infectious agent that may be a risk to others in such a way as to
minimize the risk of the infection spreading elsewhere in their body.

9. A patient has just returned from theatre following surgery on his left arm. He has a PCA infusion connected and from the admission, you remember that they have poor dexterity with his right hand. He is currently pain free. What actions would you take?
A. Educate the patient’s family to push the button when the patient asks for it. Encourage them to tell the
nursing staff when they leave the ward so that staff can take over.
B. Routinely offer the patient a bolus and document this clearly.
C. Contact the pain team/anaesthetist to discuss the situation and suggest that the means of delivery are
D. The patient has paracetamol q.d.s. written up, so this should be adequate pain relief.

10. What specifically do you need to monitor to avoid complications and ensure optimal nutritional status in patients being enterally fed?
A. Blood glucose levels, full blood count, stoma site and bodyweight.
B. Eye sight, hearing, full blood count, lung function and stoma site.
C. Assess swallowing, patient choice, fluid balance, capillary refill time.
D. Daily urinalysis, ECG, protein levels and arterial pressure.

11. Perdue (2005) categorizes constipation as primary, secondary or iatrogenic. What could be some of the causes of iatrogenic constipation?
A. Inadequate diet and poor fluid intake.
B. Anal fissures, colonic tumours or hypercalcaemia.
C. Lifestyle changes and ignoring the urge to defaecate.
D. Antiemetic or opioid medication.

12. In which of the following situations might nitrous oxide (Entonox) be considered?
A. A wound dressing change for short-term pain relief or the removal of a chest drain for reduction of anxiety.
B. Turning a patient who has bowel obstruction because there is an expectation that they may have pain from
pathological fractures.
C. For pain relief during the insertion of a chest drain for the treatment of a pneumothorax.
D. For pain relief during a wound dressing for a patient who has had radical head and neck cancer that involved
the jaw.

13. Why is it essential to humidify oxygen used during respiratory therapy?
A. Oxygen is a very hot gas so if humidification isn’t used, the oxygen will burn the respiratory tract and cause
considerable pain for the patient when they breathe.
B. Oxygen is a dry gas which can cause evaporation of water from the respiratory tract and lead to thickened
mucus in the airways, reduction of the movement of cilia and increased susceptibility to respiratory infection.
C. Humidification cleans the oxygen as it is administered to ensure it is free from any aerobic pathogens before it
is inhaled by the patient.
D. Humidifying oxygen adds hydrogen to it, which makes it easier for oxygen to be absorbed to the blood in the
lungs. This means the cells that need it for intracellular function have their needs met in a more timely

14. You are currently on placement in the emergency department (ED). A 55-year-old city worker is bluelighted into the ED having had a cardiorespiratory arrest at work. The paramedics have been resuscitating him for 3 minutes. On arrival, he is in ventricular fibrillation. Your mentor asks you the following question prior to your shift starting: What will be the most important part of the patient’s immediate advanced life support?
A. Early defibrillation to restart the heart.
B. Early cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
C. Administration of adrenaline every 3 minutes.
D. Correction of reversible causes of hypoxia.

15. What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids frequently?
A. Respiratory rate, bowel movement record and pain assessment and score.
B. Checking the patent is not addicted by looking at their blood pressure.
C. Lung function tests, oxygen saturations and addiction levels.
D. Daily completion of a Bristol stool chart, urinalysis, and a record of the frequency with which the patient
reports breakthrough pain.

16. What does the term ‘breakthrough pain’ mean, and what type of prescription would you expect for it?
A. A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short-lived exacerbation of pain, with a prescription
that has no regular time of administration of analgesia.
B. Pain on movement which is short-lived, with a q.d.s. prescription, when necessary.
C. Pain that is intense, unexpected, in a location that differs from that previously assessed, needing a review
before a prescription is written.
D. A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short-lived exacerbation of pain, with a prescription
that has 4-hourly frequency of analgesia if necessary.

17. A patient in your care knocks their head on the bedside locker when reaching down to pick up something they have dropped. What do you do?
A. Let the patient’s relatives know so that they don’t make a complaint and write an incident report for yourself
so you remember the details in case there are problems in the future.
B. Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, commence neurological observations and ask the patient’s
doctor to come and review them, checking the injury isn’t serious. When this has taken place, write up what
happened and any future care in the nursing notes.
C. Discuss the incident with the nurse in charge, and contact your union representative in case you get into
D. Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, take a set of observations and report the incident to the
nurse in charge who may call a doctor. Complete an incident form. At an appropriate time, discuss the
incident with the patient and, if they wish, their relatives.

18. You are caring for a patient with a tracheostomy in situ who requires frequent suctioning. How long should you suction for?
A. If you preoxygenate the patient, you can insert the catheter for 45 seconds.
B. Never insert the catheter for longer than 10–15 seconds.
C. Monitor the patient’s oxygen saturations and suction for 30 seconds.
D. Suction for 50 seconds and send a specimen to the laboratory if the secretions are purulent.

19. You are caring for a patient in isolation with suspected Clostridium difficile. What are the essential key actions to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Regular hand hygiene and the promotion of the infection prevention link nurse role.
B. Encourage the doctors to wear gloves and aprons, to be bare below the elbow and to wash hands with
alcohol handrub. Ask for cleaning to be increased with soap-based products.
C. Ask the infection prevention team to review the patient’s medication chart and provide regular teaching
sessions on the ‘5 moments of hand hygiene’. Provide the patient and family with adequate information.
D. Review antimicrobials daily, wash hands with soap and water before and after each contact with the patient,
ask for enhanced cleaning with chlorine-based products and use gloves and aprons when disposing of body

20. What steps would you take if you had sustained a needlestick injury?
A. Ask for advice from the emergency department, report to occupational health and fill in an incident form.
B. Gently make the wound bleed, place under running water and wash thoroughly with soap and water.
Complete an incident form and inform your manager. Co-operate with any action to test yourself or the
patient for infection with a bloodborne virus but do not obtain blood or consent for testing from the patient
yourself; this should be done by someone not involved in the incident.
C. Take blood from patient and self for Hep B screening and take samples and form to Bacteriology. Call your
union representative for support. Make an appointment with your GP for a sickness certificate to take time off
until the wound site has healed so you don’t contaminate any other patients.
D. Wash the wound with soap and water. Cover any wound with a waterproof dressing to prevent entry of any
other foreign material. Wear gloves while working until the wound has healed to prevent contaminating any
other patients. Take any steps to have the patient or yourself tested for the presence of a bloodborne virus.

21. A patient needs weighing, as he is due a drug that is calculated on bodyweight. He experiences a lot of pain on movement so is reluctant to move, particularly stand up. What would you do?
A. Document clearly in the patient’s notes that a weight cannot be obtained.
B. Offer the patient pain relief and either use bed scales or a hoist with scales built in.
C. Discuss the case with your colleagues and agree to guess his bodyweight until he agrees to stand and use the
chair scales.
D. Omit the drug as it is not safe to give it without this information; inform the doctor and document your

22. Fred is going to receive a blood transfusion. How frequently should we do his observations?
A. Temperature and pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour, and at the end of bag/unit.
B. Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood transfusion begins, then after 15
minutes, then as indicated in local guidelines, and finally at the end of the bag/unit.
C. Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the blood transfusion, then at end
of bag.
D. Pulse, blood pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag.

23. A patient’s daughter wants to visit her mom in the hospital, she has been experiencing diarrhea, what will you advise her?
A. advise to visit when she feels better
B. advise her that she can visit when she is 48 hours symptom free?
C. she can visit when she is fully recovered
D. None of the above

24. Before administering Digoxin, you must check specifically for what?
A. Breathing C. Temperature
B. Heart Rate D. LOC

25. Which law provides communication aid to patient with disability?
A. Communication Act B. Equality Act C. Mental Capacity Act D.Children and Family Act

26. Which medicine does digoxin interact with?
B. rasagiline
C. amoxicillin
D. Anticoagulants

27. Patient has Low BMI but patient thinks she is fat- to whom should you refer?
A. dietician B. mental health C. Professional D. GP

28. You are caring for a patient with a history of COAD who is requiring 70% humidified oxygen via a facemask. You are monitoring his response to therapy by observing his colour, degree of respiratory distress and respiratory rate. The patient’s oxygen saturations have been between 95% and 98%. In addition, the doctor has been taking arterial blood gases. What is the reason for this?
A. Oximeters may be unreliable under certain circumstances, e.g. if tissue perfusion is poor, if the environment
is cold and if the patient’s nails are covered with nail polish.
B. Arterial blood gases should be sampled if the patient is receiving >60% oxygen.
C. Pulse oximeters provide excellent evidence of oxygenation, but they do not measure the adequacy of
D. Arterial blood gases measure both oxygen and carbon dioxide levels and therefore give an indication of both
ventilation and oxygenation.

29. You are looking after a 75-year-old woman who had an abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. What would you do to reduce the risk of her developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Give regular analgesia to ensure she has adequate pain relief so she can mobilize as soon as possible. Advise
her not to cross her legs.
B. Make sure that she is fitted with properly fitting antiembolic pressure stockings that are removed daily.
C. Ensure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings and that she is prescribed prophylactic anticoagulation and is
doing hourly limb exercises.
D. Give adequate analgesia so she can mobilize to the chair with assistance, give subcutaneous low molecular
weight heparin as prescribed. Make sure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings.

30.When using nasal cannulae, the maximum oxygen flow rate that should be used is 6 litres/min. Why?
A. Nasal cannulae are only capable of delivering an inspired oxygen concentration between 24% and 40%.
B. For any given flow rate, the inspired oxygen concentration will vary between breaths, as it depends upon the
rate and depth of the patient’s breath and the inspiratory flow rate.
C. Higher rates can cause nasal mucosal drying and may lead to epistaxis.
D. If oxygen is administered at greater than 40% it should be humidified. You cannot humidify oxygen via nasal

31. You are looking after an emaciated 80-year-old man who has been admitted to your ward with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive airways disease (COPD). He is currently so short of breath that it is difficult for him to mobilize. What are some of the actions you take to prevent him developing a pressure ulcer?
A. He will be at high risk of developing a pressure ulcer so place him on a pressure relieving mattress.
B. Assess his risk of developing a pressure ulcer with a risk assessment tool. If indicated, procure an appropriate
pressure-relieving mattress for his bed and cushion for his chair. Reassess the patient’s pressure areas at least
twice a day and keep them clean and dry. Review his fluid and nutritional intake and support him to make
changes as indicated.
C. Assess his risk of developing a pressure ulcer with a risk assessment tool and reassess every week. Reduce his
fluid intake to avoid him becoming incontinent and the pressure areas becoming damp with urine.
D. He is at high risk of developing a pressure ulcer because of his recent acute illness, poor nutritional intake and
reduced mobility. By giving him his prescribed antibiotic therapy, referring him to the dietician and
physiotherapist, the risk will be reduced.

32. You are looking after a 76-year-old woman who has had a number of recent falls at home. What would you do to try and ensure her safety whilst she is in hospital?
A. Refer her to the physiotherapist and provide her with lots of reassurance as she has lost a lot of confidence
B. Make sure that the bed area is free of clutter. Place the patient in a bed near the nurses’ station so that you
can keep an eye on her. Put her on an hourly toileting chart. Obtain lying and standing blood pressures as
postural hypotension may be contributing to her falls.
C. Make sure that the bed area is free of clutter and that the patient can reach everything she needs, including
the call bell. Check regularly to see if the patient needs assistance mobilizing to the toilet. Ensure that she has
properly fitting slippers and appropriate walking aids.
D. Refer her to the community falls team who will assess her when she gets home.

33. Your patient has a bulky oesophageal tumour and is waiting for surgery. When he tries to eat, food gets stuck and gives him heartburn. What is the most likely route that will be chosen to provide him with the nutritional support he needs?
A. Nasogastric tube feeding.
B. Feeding via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG).
C. Feeding via a radiologically inserted gastrostomy (RIG).
D. Continue oral food.

34. A patient has been admitted for nutritional support and started receiving a hyperosmolar feed yesterday. He presents with diarrhoea but has no pyrexia. What is likely to be the cause?
A. The feed. C. Food poisoning.
B. An infection. D. Being in hospital.

35. What would you do if a patient with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy requires assistance cutting his toe nails?
A. Document clearly the reason for not cutting his toe nails and refer him to a chiropodist.
B. Document clearly the reason for not cutting his nails and ask the ward sister to do it.
C. Have a go and if you run into trouble, stop and refer to the chiropodist.
D. Speak to the patient’s GP to ask for referral to the chiropodist, but make a start while the patient is in

36. If the prescribed volume is taken, which of the following types of feed will provide all protein, vitamins, minerals and trace elements to meet a patient’s nutritional requirements?
A. Protein shakes/supplements.
B. Sip feeds.
C. Energy drinks.
D. Mixed fat and glucose polymer solutions/powders.

37. On which step of the WHO analgesic ladder would you place tramadol and codeine?
A. Step 1: Non-Opioid Drugs. B. Step 2: Opioids for Mild to Moderate Pain.
C. Step 3: Opioids for Moderate to Severe Pain. D. Herbal medicine.
38. What would be your main objectives in providing stoma education when preparing a patient with a stoma for discharge home?
A. That the patient can independently manage their stoma, and can get supplies.
B. That the patient has had their appliance changed regularly, and knows their community stoma nurse.
C. That the patient knows the community stoma nurse, and has a prescription.
D. That the patient has a referral to the District Nurses for stoma care.

39. What type of diet would you recommend to your patient who has a newly formed stoma?
A. Encourage high-fibre foods to avoid constipation.
B. Encourage lots of vegetables and fruit to avoid constipation.
C. Encourage a varied diet as people can react differently.
D. Avoid spicy foods because they can cause erratic function.

40. Your patient has undergone a formation of a loop colostomy. What important considerations should be borne in mind when selecting an appropriate stoma appliance for your patient?
A. Dexterity of the patient, consistency of effluent, type of stoma.
B. Patient preference, type of stoma, consistence of effluent, state of peristomal skin, dexterity of patient.
C. Patient preference, lifestyle, position of stoma, consistency of effluent, state of peristomal skin, dexterity of
patient, type of stoma.
D. Cognitive ability, lifestyle, patient dexterity, position of stoma, state of peristomal skin, type of stoma,
consistency of effluent, patient preference.

41. Which of these is an example of an open question?
A. Are you feeling better today?
B. When you said you are hurt, what do you mean?
C. Can you tell me what is concerning you?
D. Is that what you are looking for?

42. Which of the following are barriers to effective communication?
A. Cultural differences
B. Unfamiliar accents
C. Overly technical language and terminology
D. Hearing problems
E. All of the above

43. What infection is thought to be caused by prions?
A. Leprosy
B. Pneumocystis jirovecii
C. Norovirus
D. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
E. None of the above

44. What are the most common effects of inactivity?
A. Pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection and fear of people.
B. Deep arterial thrombosis, respiratory infection, fear of movement, loss of consciousness, deconditioning of
cardiovascular system leading to an increased risk of angina.
C. Loss of weight, frustration and deep vein thrombosis.
D. Social isolation, loss of independence, exacerbation of symptoms, rapid loss of strength in leg muscles,
deconditioning of cardiovascular system leading to increased risk of chest infection, and pulmonary embolism.

45. Which of the following is a behavioural risk factor when assessing the potential risks of falling in an older person?
A. Poor nutrition/fluid intake
B. Poor heating
C. Foot problems
D. Fear of falling

46. When positioning the supine patient in bed, why should you ensure the patient is lying centrally in the bed?
A. To ensure spinal and limb alignment
B. To ensure patient comfort
C. To ensure the airway is patent
D. To minimize the risk of injury to the practitioner

47. In what instances shouldn’t you position a patient in a side-lying position?
A. If they are pregnant
B. If they have a spinal fracture
C. If they have pressure sores
D. If they have lower limb pain

48. What does ‘muscle atrophy’ mean?
A. Increase in muscle mass
B. Loss of muscle mass
C. A change in the shape of muscles
D. Disease of the muscle

49. Approximately how long is the spinal cord in an adult?
A. 30cm
B. 45cm
C. 60cm
D. 120cm

50. A new, postsurgical wound is assessed by the nurse and is found to be hot, tender and swollen. How could this wound be best described?
A. In the inflammation phase of healing.
B. In the haemostasis phase of healing.
C. In the reconstructive phase of wound healing.
D. As an infected wound.
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NMC CBT Sample Questions and CBT Exam Practice 2

1. Effect of toxins released by Clostridium Difficile:
A. Ulcerative colitis C. Hashimotos Diseases
B. Crohn’s Disease D. Pseudomembranous Colitis

2. Where is the common aneurysm location for an elderly?
A. Abdominal B. Hepatic C. Renal D. loop of Willis

3. Patient’s husband died. The brother of the patient saw that she was upset but mentally and physically well. After a few weeks, the patient called her brother and said that her husband died yesterday, she verbalized “I didn’t know he was sick”. She also told her brother that she has been seeing mice and rats in the house. The pt. had difficulty sleeping, had incontinence and pain in urinating. A community nurse visited the patient. She observed that the patient is reclusive, passive but pleasant. What could be the problem?
A. delirium due to UTI C. onset of Alzheimer’s disease from dementia B. uncoping ability because her husband just died D. delayed bereavement due to dementia

4. Early signs of phlebitis would include
A. slight pain and redness B. increased WBC C. pyrexia D. swelling

5. Infected linen should be separated from soiled linen. What type of bag should be used?
A. white linen bag to be washed in high temperature C. red plastic bag to be incinerated
B. red linen bag to be washed in high temperature D. yellow plastic bag for disposal

6. What to teach a young patient when he is taking antibiotics
A. take it during morning and complete the dose C. don’t take it with alcohol
B. take it with food or after meal and complete dose D. medication may cause hypotension

7. What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of breath sit out in a chair?
A. They shouldn’t sit out in a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone with shortness of breath so that
there are no negative effects of gravity putting pressure on the lungs.
B. Sitting in a reclining position with the legs elevated to reduce the use of postural muscle oxygen
requirements, increasing lung volumes and optimizing perfusion for the best V/Q ratio. The patient should
also be kept in an environment that is quiet so they don’t expend any unnecessary energy.
C. The patient needs to be able to sit in a forward leaning position supported by pillows. They may also need
access to a nebulizer and humidified oxygen so they must be in a position where this is accessible without
being a risk to others.

D. There are two possible positions, either sitting upright or side lying. Which is used is determined by the age of
the patient. It is also important to remember that they will always need a nebulizer and oxygen and the ai
temperature must be below 20° C.

8. Normal HR of a 2-yr old child:
A. 70-130 per minute C. 80-150 per minute
B. 60-100 per minute D. 120-160 per minute

9. A doctor is about to apply oxygen therapy to patient via nasal cannula at 2L per minute when he was called for an emergency, and gave the task to you. However you are not trained. What should you do?
A. Inform your supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.
B. Apply the cannula since you have seen it done before.
C. Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.
D. Have a friend help you apply it.

10. Who should be responsible in proper disposal of sharps
A. healthcare assistant B. doctor C. registered nurse D. the professional who used the sharp

11. What is clinical benchmarking?
A. A systematic process in which current practice and care are compared to, and amended to attain, best
practice and care.
B. A system that provides a non-structured approach for realistic and supportive practice development.
C. The use of clinical data and process analysis to identify possible outcomes.
D. Is the process of comparing a practice’s performance with an external standard.

12. How long does the proliferation phase of a wound occur?
A. 3-24 days B. 5-21 days C. 4-18 days D. 3-30 days
13. Signs & Symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy:
• Light vaginal bleeding. • Nausea and vomiting with pain.
• Lower abdominal pain. • Sharp abdominal cramps.
• Pain on one side of your body. • Dizziness or weakness.
• Pain in your shoulder, neck, or rectum. • If the fallopian tube ruptures, the pain and bleeding could be
severe enough to cause fainting.
Which one is not a sign:
A. Vaginal bleeding C. Positive pregnancy test
B. Shoulder tip pain D. Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day

14. Scenario: You are the nurse in charge of the unit and you are accompanied by 4th year nursing students.
A. Allow students to give meds C. Get consent of patient
B. Assess competence of student D. Have direct supervision

15. Among the following drugs, which does not cause falls in an elderly?
A. Diuretics B. NSAIDS C. Beta blockers D. Hypnotics

16. Which is not a definition of an informed consent?
A. a decision to participate in research, taken by a competent individual who has received the necessary
information; who has adequately understood the information, and who, after considering the information,
has arrived at a decision without having been subjected to coercion, undue influence or inducement, or
B. a process for getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a person
C. the process by which the treating health care provider discloses appropriate information to a competent
patient so that the patient may make a voluntary choice to accept or refuse treatment.
D. For consent to be valid, it must be involuntary and informed, and the person consenting must have the
capacity to make the decision.

17. What is Supportive Communication?
A. To listen and clarify using close-ended questions
B. A communication that seeks to preserve a positive relationship between the communicators while still
addressing the problem at hand.
C. It involves a self-perceived flaw that an individual refuses to admit to another person, a sensitivity to that
flaw, and an attack by another person that focuses on the flaw.
D. the face-to-face process of interacting that focuses on advancing the physical and emotional well-being of a

18. Patient had CVA and can’t speak nor read. What does the loss of speech mean?
A. Dysphagia B. Progressive Aphasia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia

19. 5 moments of hand hygience include all of the ff except:
A. Before Patient Contact
B. Before a clean / aseptic procedure
C. Before Body Fluid Exposure Risk
D. After Patient contact
E. After Contact with Patient’s surrounding

20. All are purposes of NMC except:
A. NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
B. It sets standards of education, training, conduct and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver
high quality healthcare throughout their careers.
C. It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold its professional
D. It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings.

21. All but one are Nursing teachings for patients taking Allopurinol:
A. Instruct patient to take the drug after meals;
B. Educate patient that he may experience these side effects: nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite; drowsiness
C. Encourage patient to report unusual bleeding or bruising; fever, chills; gout attack; numbness or tingling; flank
pain, skin rash.

D. instruct patient to chew medication

22. Select which is not a proper way of Administering Eye Drops?
A. Administer the prescribed number of drops, holding the eye dropper 1–2 cm above the eye. If the patient
links or closes their eye, repeat the procedure
B. Ask the patient to close their eyes and keep them closed for 1–2 minutes.
C. If administering both drops and ointment, administer ointment first.
D. Ask the patient to sit back with neck slightly hyperextended or lie down.

23. How should we transport controlled drugs? Select which does not apply:
A. Controlled drugs should be transferred in a secure, locked or sealed, tamper-evident container.
B. A person collecting controlled drugs should be aware of safe storage and security and the importance of
handing over to an authorized person to obtain a signature.
C. Have valid ID badge
D. None of the above

24. In a patient with hourly monitoring, when does a nurse formally document the monitoring?
A. Every hour C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition B. At the end of the shift D. Mid of shift

25. Appropriate wound dressing criteria includes all but one:
A. Allows gaseous exchange.
B. Maintains optimum temperature and pH in the wound.
C. Forms an effective barrier to
D. Allows removal of the dressing without pain or skin stripping.
E. Is non-absorbent

26. Signs of denture related stomatitis
A. whiteness on the tongue C. patches of shiny redness on the cheek and tongue
B. patches of shiny redness on the palette and gums D. patches of shiny redness on the tongue

27. When do you plan a discharge?
A. 24 hrs within admission C. 48 hrs within admission
B. 72 hrs within admission D. 12 hrs within admission

28. Postpartum haemorrhage: A patient gave birth via NSD. After 48 hours, patient came back due to bleeding, bleeding after birth is called post partumhaemorrhage. What type?
A. primary post partumhaemorrhage C. secondary post partumhaemorrhage B. tertiary postpartum haemorrhage D. lochia

29. The AVPU scale means:
A. Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive C. Awake, Verbal, Pain, Unconscious
B. Alert, verbal, Pressure, Unconscious D. Awake, Verbal, Pressure, Unresponsive

30. Management in Blood Transfusion Reaction would include the ff but:
A. Close IV line
B. Disconnect pack from patient.
C. Complete Transfusion Reaction Report Form.
D. Obtain blood/urine samples as directed.
E. Send pack, Transfusion Reaction Report Form and samples to hospital Blood Bank

31. Which of the ff is not a cause of gingival bleeding?
A. Vigorous brushing of teeth C. Vitamin deficiency (Vitamins C and K)
B. Intake of blood thinning medications (warfarin, aspirin, and heparin) D. Lifestyle

32. Your patient has bronchitis and has difficulty in clearing his chest. What position would help to maximize the drainage of secretions?
A. Lying flat on his back while using a nebulizer.
B. Sitting up leaning on pillows and inhaling humidified oxygen.
C. Lying on his side with the area to be drained uppermost after the patient has had humidified air.
D. Standing up in fresh air taking deep breaths.

33. Signs of denture-related stomatitis include all except:
A. Redness underneath the area where the dentures are placed
B. Red sores at the corners of lips or on the roof of the mouth
C. Presence of white patches inside the mouth
D. Gingivitis

34. Which of the ff should be considered before giving digoxin?
1. Allergies
2. Drug interactions
3. Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
4. Medical problems (Thyroid problem, Kidney disease, etc.)
A. 1&2 B. 3&4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. All of the above

35. Signs of hypovolemic shock would include all except:
A. restlessness, anxiety or confusion
B. shallow respiratory rate, becoming weak
C. rising pulse rate
D. low urine output of <0.5 mL/kg/h E. pallor (pale, cyanotic skin) and later sweating 36. All but one are signs of opioid toxicity: A. CNS depression (coma) B. Pupillary miosis C. Respiratory depression (cyanosis) D. Tachycardia 37. Patient had undergone post lumbar tap and is exhibiting increase HR, decrease BP, and alteration in consciousness and dilated pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing? A. Headache B. Shock C. Brain herniation D. Hypotension 38. NMC defines record keeping as all of the following except: A. Helping to improve advocacy B. Showing how decisions related to patient care were made C. Supporting effective clinical judgements and decisions D. Helping in identifying risks, and enabling early detection of complications 39. How to position patient for abdominal tap A. Supine B. Prone C. Supine with HOB 40-50 degree elevated D. Sitting 40. Initial intervention when a patient collapsed: A. Call a code B. Check for responsiveness C. Check if the scene is safe D. Assess VS 41. Revisions should be included in what nursing process? A. Assessment B. Planning C. Intervention D. Evaluation 42. Which is not part of tuckman's team formation A. norming B. storming C. forming D. accepting 43. Patient had CVA, who will assess swallowing capability? A. physiotherapy nurse B. psychotherapy nurse C. speech and language therapist D. neurologic nurse 44. What is the most common cause of hypotension in elderly? A. Decrease response in adrenaline & noradrenaline C. Hyperglycemia B. Atheroma changes in vessel walls D. Age 45. The best way to verify enteral tube prior to feeding: A. Abdominal xray C. Introduce air B. Aspirate gastric content ph<4 D. Immerse in a basin of water 46. What is not a good route for IM injection? A. upper arm B. stomach C. thigh D. buttocks 47. What angle to inject via subcutaneous route? A. 90 B. 45 C. 60 D. 15 48. Causes of gingival bleeding A. poor removal plaque B. poor flossing C. poor nutrition D. poor taking of drugs 49. Describe the breathing pattern when a patient is suffering from Opioid toxicity: A. Slow and shallow B. fast and shallow C. slow and deep D. Fast and deep 50. Information can be disclosed in all cases except: A. When effectively anonymized. B. When the information is required by law or under a court order. C. In identifiable form, when it is required for a specific purpose, with the individual’s written consent or with support under the Health Service D. In Child Protection proceedings if it is considered that the information required is in the public or child’s interest. We found this whatsapp group useful to join click Here