1. Effect of toxins released by Clostridium Difficile:
A. Ulcerative colitis C. Hashimotos Diseases
B. Crohn’s Disease D. Pseudomembranous Colitis
2. Where is the common aneurysm location for an elderly?
A. Abdominal B. Hepatic C. Renal D. loop of Willis
3. Patient’s husband died. The brother of the patient saw that she was upset but mentally and physically well. After a few weeks, the patient called her brother and said that her husband died yesterday, she verbalized “I didn’t know he was sick”. She also told her brother that she has been seeing mice and rats in the house. The pt. had difficulty sleeping, had incontinence and pain in urinating. A community nurse visited the patient. She observed that the patient is reclusive, passive but pleasant. What could be the problem?
A. delirium due to UTI C. onset of Alzheimer’s disease from dementia B. uncoping ability because her husband just died D. delayed bereavement due to dementia
4. Early signs of phlebitis would include
A. slight pain and redness B. increased WBC C. pyrexia D. swelling
5. Infected linen should be separated from soiled linen. What type of bag should be used?
A. white linen bag to be washed in high temperature C. red plastic bag to be incinerated
B. red linen bag to be washed in high temperature D. yellow plastic bag for disposal
6. What to teach a young patient when he is taking antibiotics
A. take it during morning and complete the dose C. don’t take it with alcohol
B. take it with food or after meal and complete dose D. medication may cause hypotension
7. What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of breath sit out in a chair?
A. They shouldn’t sit out in a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone with shortness of breath so that
there are no negative effects of gravity putting pressure on the lungs.
B. Sitting in a reclining position with the legs elevated to reduce the use of postural muscle oxygen
requirements, increasing lung volumes and optimizing perfusion for the best V/Q ratio. The patient should
also be kept in an environment that is quiet so they don’t expend any unnecessary energy.
C. The patient needs to be able to sit in a forward leaning position supported by pillows. They may also need
access to a nebulizer and humidified oxygen so they must be in a position where this is accessible without
being a risk to others.
D. There are two possible positions, either sitting upright or side lying. Which is used is determined by the age of
the patient. It is also important to remember that they will always need a nebulizer and oxygen and the ai
temperature must be below 20° C.
8. Normal HR of a 2-yr old child:
A. 70-130 per minute C. 80-150 per minute
B. 60-100 per minute D. 120-160 per minute
9. A doctor is about to apply oxygen therapy to patient via nasal cannula at 2L per minute when he was called for an emergency, and gave the task to you. However you are not trained. What should you do?
A. Inform your supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.
B. Apply the cannula since you have seen it done before.
C. Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.
D. Have a friend help you apply it.
10. Who should be responsible in proper disposal of sharps
A. healthcare assistant B. doctor C. registered nurse D. the professional who used the sharp
11. What is clinical benchmarking?
A. A systematic process in which current practice and care are compared to, and amended to attain, best
practice and care.
B. A system that provides a non-structured approach for realistic and supportive practice development.
C. The use of clinical data and process analysis to identify possible outcomes.
D. Is the process of comparing a practice’s performance with an external standard.
12. How long does the proliferation phase of a wound occur?
A. 3-24 days B. 5-21 days C. 4-18 days D. 3-30 days
13. Signs & Symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy:
• Light vaginal bleeding. • Nausea and vomiting with pain.
• Lower abdominal pain. • Sharp abdominal cramps.
• Pain on one side of your body. • Dizziness or weakness.
• Pain in your shoulder, neck, or rectum. • If the fallopian tube ruptures, the pain and bleeding could be
severe enough to cause fainting.
Which one is not a sign:
A. Vaginal bleeding C. Positive pregnancy test
B. Shoulder tip pain D. Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day
14. Scenario: You are the nurse in charge of the unit and you are accompanied by 4th year nursing students.
A. Allow students to give meds C. Get consent of patient
B. Assess competence of student D. Have direct supervision
15. Among the following drugs, which does not cause falls in an elderly?
A. Diuretics B. NSAIDS C. Beta blockers D. Hypnotics
16. Which is not a definition of an informed consent?
A. a decision to participate in research, taken by a competent individual who has received the necessary
information; who has adequately understood the information, and who, after considering the information,
has arrived at a decision without having been subjected to coercion, undue influence or inducement, or
B. a process for getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a person
C. the process by which the treating health care provider discloses appropriate information to a competent
patient so that the patient may make a voluntary choice to accept or refuse treatment.
D. For consent to be valid, it must be involuntary and informed, and the person consenting must have the
capacity to make the decision.
17. What is Supportive Communication?
A. To listen and clarify using close-ended questions
B. A communication that seeks to preserve a positive relationship between the communicators while still
addressing the problem at hand.
C. It involves a self-perceived flaw that an individual refuses to admit to another person, a sensitivity to that
flaw, and an attack by another person that focuses on the flaw.
D. the face-to-face process of interacting that focuses on advancing the physical and emotional well-being of a
18. Patient had CVA and can’t speak nor read. What does the loss of speech mean?
A. Dysphagia B. Progressive Aphasia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia
19. 5 moments of hand hygience include all of the ff except:
A. Before Patient Contact
B. Before a clean / aseptic procedure
C. Before Body Fluid Exposure Risk
D. After Patient contact
E. After Contact with Patient’s surrounding
20. All are purposes of NMC except:
A. NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
B. It sets standards of education, training, conduct and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver
high quality healthcare throughout their careers.
C. It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold its professional
D. It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings.
21. All but one are Nursing teachings for patients taking Allopurinol:
A. Instruct patient to take the drug after meals;
B. Educate patient that he may experience these side effects: nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite; drowsiness
C. Encourage patient to report unusual bleeding or bruising; fever, chills; gout attack; numbness or tingling; flank
pain, skin rash.
D. instruct patient to chew medication
22. Select which is not a proper way of Administering Eye Drops?
A. Administer the prescribed number of drops, holding the eye dropper 1–2 cm above the eye. If the patient
links or closes their eye, repeat the procedure
B. Ask the patient to close their eyes and keep them closed for 1–2 minutes.
C. If administering both drops and ointment, administer ointment first.
D. Ask the patient to sit back with neck slightly hyperextended or lie down.
23. How should we transport controlled drugs? Select which does not apply:
A. Controlled drugs should be transferred in a secure, locked or sealed, tamper-evident container.
B. A person collecting controlled drugs should be aware of safe storage and security and the importance of
handing over to an authorized person to obtain a signature.
C. Have valid ID badge
D. None of the above
24. In a patient with hourly monitoring, when does a nurse formally document the monitoring?
A. Every hour C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition B. At the end of the shift D. Mid of shift
25. Appropriate wound dressing criteria includes all but one:
A. Allows gaseous exchange.
B. Maintains optimum temperature and pH in the wound.
C. Forms an effective barrier to
D. Allows removal of the dressing without pain or skin stripping.
E. Is non-absorbent
26. Signs of denture related stomatitis
A. whiteness on the tongue C. patches of shiny redness on the cheek and tongue
B. patches of shiny redness on the palette and gums D. patches of shiny redness on the tongue
27. When do you plan a discharge?
A. 24 hrs within admission C. 48 hrs within admission
B. 72 hrs within admission D. 12 hrs within admission
28. Postpartum haemorrhage: A patient gave birth via NSD. After 48 hours, patient came back due to bleeding, bleeding after birth is called post partumhaemorrhage. What type?
A. primary post partumhaemorrhage C. secondary post partumhaemorrhage B. tertiary postpartum haemorrhage D. lochia
29. The AVPU scale means:
A. Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive C. Awake, Verbal, Pain, Unconscious
B. Alert, verbal, Pressure, Unconscious D. Awake, Verbal, Pressure, Unresponsive
30. Management in Blood Transfusion Reaction would include the ff but:
A. Close IV line
B. Disconnect pack from patient.
C. Complete Transfusion Reaction Report Form.
D. Obtain blood/urine samples as directed.
E. Send pack, Transfusion Reaction Report Form and samples to hospital Blood Bank
31. Which of the ff is not a cause of gingival bleeding?
A. Vigorous brushing of teeth C. Vitamin deficiency (Vitamins C and K)
B. Intake of blood thinning medications (warfarin, aspirin, and heparin) D. Lifestyle
32. Your patient has bronchitis and has difficulty in clearing his chest. What position would help to maximize the drainage of secretions?
A. Lying flat on his back while using a nebulizer.
B. Sitting up leaning on pillows and inhaling humidified oxygen.
C. Lying on his side with the area to be drained uppermost after the patient has had humidified air.
D. Standing up in fresh air taking deep breaths.
33. Signs of denture-related stomatitis include all except:
A. Redness underneath the area where the dentures are placed
B. Red sores at the corners of lips or on the roof of the mouth
C. Presence of white patches inside the mouth
34. Which of the ff should be considered before giving digoxin?
2. Drug interactions
3. Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
4. Medical problems (Thyroid problem, Kidney disease, etc.)
A. 1&2 B. 3&4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. All of the above
35. Signs of hypovolemic shock would include all except:
A. restlessness, anxiety or confusion
B. shallow respiratory rate, becoming weak
C. rising pulse rate
D. low urine output of <0.5 mL/kg/h E. pallor (pale, cyanotic skin) and later sweating 36. All but one are signs of opioid toxicity: A. CNS depression (coma) B. Pupillary miosis C. Respiratory depression (cyanosis) D. Tachycardia 37. Patient had undergone post lumbar tap and is exhibiting increase HR, decrease BP, and alteration in consciousness and dilated pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing? A. Headache B. Shock C. Brain herniation D. Hypotension 38. NMC defines record keeping as all of the following except: A. Helping to improve advocacy B. Showing how decisions related to patient care were made C. Supporting effective clinical judgements and decisions D. Helping in identifying risks, and enabling early detection of complications 39. How to position patient for abdominal tap A. Supine B. Prone C. Supine with HOB 40-50 degree elevated D. Sitting 40. Initial intervention when a patient collapsed: A. Call a code B. Check for responsiveness C. Check if the scene is safe D. Assess VS 41. Revisions should be included in what nursing process? A. Assessment B. Planning C. Intervention D. Evaluation 42. Which is not part of tuckman's team formation A. norming B. storming C. forming D. accepting 43. Patient had CVA, who will assess swallowing capability? A. physiotherapy nurse B. psychotherapy nurse C. speech and language therapist D. neurologic nurse 44. What is the most common cause of hypotension in elderly? A. Decrease response in adrenaline & noradrenaline C. Hyperglycemia B. Atheroma changes in vessel walls D. Age 45. The best way to verify enteral tube prior to feeding: A. Abdominal xray C. Introduce air B. Aspirate gastric content ph<4 D. Immerse in a basin of water 46. What is not a good route for IM injection? A. upper arm B. stomach C. thigh D. buttocks 47. What angle to inject via subcutaneous route? A. 90 B. 45 C. 60 D. 15 48. Causes of gingival bleeding A. poor removal plaque B. poor flossing C. poor nutrition D. poor taking of drugs 49. Describe the breathing pattern when a patient is suffering from Opioid toxicity: A. Slow and shallow B. fast and shallow C. slow and deep D. Fast and deep 50. Information can be disclosed in all cases except: A. When effectively anonymized. B. When the information is required by law or under a court order. C. In identifiable form, when it is required for a specific purpose, with the individual’s written consent or with support under the Health Service D. In Child Protection proceedings if it is considered that the information required is in the public or child’s interest.