Qatar Prometric Exam Passing Score for Doctors, Nurses and Others

Qualifying Examination
  • ​​​​The qualifying exam is considered to be one of the requirements for registration / licensing of healthcare practitioners to ensure the efficiency and the eligibility of applicants to work safely in the State of Qatar.
  • All categories listed below must pass the electronic qualifying exam to get a license to practice after fulfilling all other requirements of registration and licensing.
  • The Qatar Council for Healthcare Practitioners provides computer based examination (Prometric) for 15 categories of healthcare practitioners as follows:
    No. Exam Title No. of items/ Exam Duration Cut score Practitioners required to take the Qualifying Exam
    1. General Practitioner 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    60% General Practitioner
    2. General Dentist 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    60% General Dentist
    3. Pharmacist 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    60% Pharmacist
    4. Registered General Nurse 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Registered General Nurse
    5. Registered Midwife 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Registered Midwife
    6. Lab Technologist (New) 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Lab Technologist,

    Lab Technologist (specific)

    7. Lab  Technician 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Lab Technician
    8. Radiology Technologist (New) 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Radiology Technologist,


    9. Radiology Technician 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Radiology Technician
    10. Physiotherapist 70 MCQs,

    2 hours

    50% Physiotherapist


    11. Basic Paramedic 70 MCQs,

    2 hours

    50% Basic Paramedic
    12. Paramedic (New) 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Paramedic,

    Critical Care Paramedic

    13. Dental Assistant 100 MCQs,

    2 ½ hours

    50% Dental Assistant
    14. Dental Hygienist 70 MCQs,

    2 hours

    50% Dental Hygienist
    15. Dental Lab Technician 70 MCQs,

    2 hours

    50% Dental Technician
  • More Examinations can be added as needed
  • The scopes not required to sit for the qualifying exam will be reviewed and evaluated as per the registration Department approved qualification or through panel assessment.
  • To register and schedule your exams please visit the online booking page online booking page .
  • • For certificates that exempt their holder from the qualifying exam of General practitioner and General dentist, please visit Physicians and Dentists guidelines.
  • For registration/ licensing requirements click here .
  • For any query regarding the electronic qualifying exam, and to get more information about registering for the exam, please visit the company organizing the exams (Prometric) .
Contact Info for Qualifying Examination Enquiries
  • Phone Numbers:
  • Sunday to Thursday (with Arabic language option):
    • +31 320239530​
  • Friday to Monday :
    • +31 320239800​
References of the Qualifying Electronic Exam


Qatar Prometric Exam for Nurses Requirements

​In order to get practicing license in the healthcare sector in the State of Qatar, you need to apply for an online application for registration / evaluation through the Electronic Registration & Licensing System and complete all the requirements using the following QCHP website​

Kindly notice that:
  1.  Your online application should be through an Employer/potential employer in the State of Qatar (you will not be able to apply for registration request without an employer in Qatar).
  2. For more information on how to use the electronic registration/licensing system, please check the following link on the QCHP website
  3. To find all about the Registration / Evaluation requirements, please check the guidelines at the following link on the QCHP website
  4. To find all about the qualifying examination (Prometric), please check the following link on the QCHP website
  5. To find all about the primary source verification, please check the following link on the QCHP website


  • ​No practitioner is allowed to practice before receiving their medical license from QCHP; otherwise the licensing application will be rejected, and the institution and practitioner will face disciplinary actions.
  • Please follow up with your employer or potential employer’s focal point concerning the registration / evaluation process and in case you need to check your delayed application status (if any).


​Kindly find below the types of request that can be applied though the registration & Licensing Electronic System:

​Time Frame

(Starting from the request submission date after payment)
​Type of Request​
​25 working days ​Evaluation
​20 working days ​Licensing
​15 working days ​License Renewal
​15 working days ​Change Place of Work
​15 working days ​Change Scope of Practice
​25 working days ​Certificate of Good Standing covering the work experience spent in the State of Qatar


  • ​Please use the following link on the QCHP website in order to find the requirements and the process of each of the above mentioned requests by checking the guideline of your profession.​​
  • For any technical issue in using the Electronic Registration & Licensing System please contact our System Help Desk Officer on the following contact details: Telephone number: 44070279.​

​The Evaluation, Licensing and License Renewal fees change depending on the profession and scope of practice as shown in the below noted table, knowing that the license validity is 2 years starting from the issuing date and that it is prohibited for any practitioner to practice without license or with an expired license:

​​Profession ​Request Type ​Request Fees (QR)
​Physician (specialist) ​​ ​

​Evaluation ​100
​Licensing ​1200
​Renewal ​1200
​General Scope Physician ​ ​​​ ​

​Evaluation ​100
​Licensing ​1000
​Renewal ​1000
​Dentist (specialist) ​ ​ ​​​ ​

​Evaluation ​100
​Licensing ​1200
​Renewal ​1200
​General Scope Dentist ​ ​​​ ​

​Evaluation ​100
​Licensing ​1000
​Renewal ​1000

​Evaluation ​100
​Licensing ​600
​Renewal ​600

​Allied Health Practitioner ​ ​

​Evaluation ​100
​Licensing ​600
​Renewal ​600
​Nurse ​ ​

​Evaluation ​100
​Licensing ​600
​Renewal ​600


Can the evaluation and the primary source verification processes be done without the candidate physically present in Doha?​

​Yes, a large part of the registration and licensing process can be done while the applicant remains in their home country. For example, the primary source verification application can be completed and submitted by using the electronic verification system, Qualifying examination (if required) can be taken in one of 10,000 test centers located in over 100 countries around the world, and the evaluation application can be completed and submitted by the employer locally while the applicant is still outside Qatar. However, some evaluation requirements (for example an assessment interview) will require the presence of the applicant in the State of Qatar. In addition, the licensing process will also require the presence of the applicant in the State of Qatar.


CELBAN Review: Test Format, Test Preparation, Registration and Practice Materials

CELBAN just like IELTS is a four module English proficiency test that is required for International nurses to upgrade their nursing degree or diploma in Canada. It is accepted by all licensing bodies all over Canada. It is especially designed in Canada. The CELBAN Test is entirely from the medical background nurses take this test as it requires the test of English for medical report writing, medical vocabulary and interaction with patients for treatment. All the modules of the test are based on medical topics.The assessment test is taken in 4 parts. These are as follows:
1. Speaking
2. Listening
3. Reading
4. Writing

Listening, Reading and writing are taken together as a group test whereas, speaking test is taken separately one by one. The English language levels required for nurses entering in Canadian Nursing Profession are

*Speaking: CLB Level 8
*Listening: CLB Level 10
* Reading: CLB Level 8
*Writing: CLB Level 7

Listening, Reading and Writing sections are assessed together as a group test, whereas speaking test is taken separately. Both parts of the test may fall on the same day and speaking test may fall a day after. Group test is taken first. To pass the test you have to get pass bands from each section and if you do not qualify any one section of the group test, you have to take the whole group test again.

Listening is one of the modules of CELBAN Testing. There are multiple choice questions. You have 30 seconds to read the questions and 30 seconds to check the answers. You are not given headphones, so make practice without headphones. There are a lot of people in the room so be prepared.
1. There are five video scenarios
2. There are four audio scenarios
Time: 45 Minutes
Listening section includes scenes in a clinic, home, hospital or medical office in different settings. The scenes include communication between nurses and the patient, doctor and patient, phone call between family members and nurse, nurse shift to shift report or nurse reporting the doctor.
You will be given 30 seconds to preview the questions. Read the questions thoroughly during that time and if time permits, read the answer choices. In listening multiple choice questions are given. Each question has 4 choices.
In listening tests the conversation is very fast and all nationalities, sex and age people are included. So in order to pass the test you need to pay a lot of attention.
You need to relax and listen wholeheartedly with full concentration. Do not let the thoughts interrupt.


Reading test in CELBAN is also very important part of the test. The Reading test consist of 2 parts:

Skimming and scanning(5-8 minutes).
Reading comprehensions and gap fills.

In skimming and scanning you are given a patient’s transfer/referral/admission from which you need to scan thoroughly and skim the information given in the text booklet. In this section only 5-8 minutes are given and the main objective is to take out accurate information at a given time. (Limited time)

In the second part of reading you get 2 reading comprehension and one paragraph for gap fills. From the reading comprehension, you have some multiple choice statement question answers and you are required to mark the correct answer. Please use your time wisely and do not spend more than 15 minutes in solving any passage.

In the passage with gap fills you have 4 answer choices for each gap and you are required to fill them with the correct word.


Writing plays a very important part of day-to-day activities in healthcare industry in Canada.
The writing test consists of 2 parts

Part 1:-
Form filling: 10 minutes.
There will be an interview – Doctor – Patient or Nurse – Patient or a related clinic scene.
You will be given a Nurses record sheet and a video scene regarding talk between a Patient and a Nurse or Doctor and Nurse in a hospital setting.
You will have a minute to preview the assessment record sheet.
You have to record whatever is asked with supporting details in the point form.

Part 2:-
Part 2 in writing sections incident report writing. You have to write a report taking the information provided in the question. The incident report is a record of incident, problems and events at the time of admission of patients and afterwards.

In this test we have to be very focused on grammar, spelling, word choice and other communication vocabulary. You must include information precisely answering questions like who, what, when, why and how. You need some efforts and practice to write good reports.


Speaking module of CELBAN is conducted individually and takes approximately 20-30 minutes. There are 2 assessors who carry out assessments. It is always recorded and you are assessed on the basis of your use of language (word choice), grammatical accuracy, narrating, supporting the opinion, the use of strategies for synthesizing, stating and describing.

Your language proficiency is judged from your interaction with the patient. Most importantly your confidence is judged from your fluency in asking questions and answering the patient’s queries. In speaking, you should make use of paraphrasing, self-correcting, confirming and maintaining rapport with the patient.

Speak in, simple as well as complex sentences and accomplish the task of introducing and concluding the topic. Your language should be easily understood and you should answer the patient’s queries and satisfy him. You should have a proper flow of language and correct pronunciation in a comfortable manner.

There is no assessment of the general questions regarding your introduction.

Describing questions:

The examiner asks you 3-4 questions in order to judge your language for describing the facts.They may ask you the questions to compare and contrast from general topics like Canadian culture, transport, weather, problems attached with immigration, your role as a nurse or any other topic of their choice and so on.

Role play:

In role play one of the examiners enacts as a patient and you as a nurse. You are given a form and are required to fill the information on that form by asking question a given topic. They assess your language proficiency for your response to the queries of the patient and your ability to ask proper, relevant and correct questions on the given points.

At the end you are given a sheet of some clues and you are asked to give teachings to the patient at the time of discharge (discharge instructions)


GRAMMAR- It plays an eminent role to pass the test. So, Practice extra grammar exercises
REVISE Thoroughly:
All tenses, Parts of speech as Noun, Pronoun, Verb, Forms of verbs, Adverb, Adjective, Prepositions, Conjunctions, Punctuations, Clauses, articles and active passive voice.
• Study 3 hrs. /Day minimum of three months.
• Listen & watch English news daily.
• Go through the details of all common diseases.
• Revise medical vocabulary.
• Make short notes on all disease.


Listening is training your ears, so, do not watch native programs on TV. Listen & watch English programs all time
• Daily practice listening for 3 months minimum to pass the test.
• Prepare well in advance. Take some professional guidance.
• Please do not get nervous.
Great listeners are strong receivers, so try to recollect and write whatever you watch & listen at the same time during practice sessions.Watch English movies (American English Movies)Listen to English music and try to understand the lyrics. Make native English speakers as friends.Give thoughtful attention to the speaker in a curious, open minded and non-judgmental manner. Pay full attention to the speaker.Watch body language.Create your interest in the scenery and enjoy it.

Just before the test:
Relax and think positive. Always remember the motto “You can win”. Drink water and stay calm. Arrive early before the exam and do not get nervous.Take a deep breath before the exam.
While taking tests:
Before listening video or audio starts, read all questions thoroughly in giving time for question reading. If time permits then read the answer choices.Four answer choices are given for each question, from which two answer choices are always wrong, look for the exact answer from other two choices. If you don’t find any answer, or you distract your attention, move on.Don’t get panic, otherwise you will lose your concentration and miss many questions.Do not lose your confidence at any cost. Believe in yourself.
Work quickly and take care of the spellings. Always read the questions thoroughly and look for the possible answer. Read each blank or phrase. Read the whole sentence and look for the missing part of speech and tense used in the sentence.
For comprehension, first of all read the heading and subheading properly to know what the topic is about.DO not read the whole passage otherwise you will not finish on time. Skim and scan the passages to find main information. Go back and forth, try to get most important concept given in passage in your mind. Scan and read first, middle & last sentence of each stanza.

Note and flag keywords in the passage. Then read the questions properly one by one and pick the answer from answer choices. Try to answer the easier questions first.Timing is very essential. Don’t spend more than 15 minutes on any passage

For gap fills you are required to read every sentence and look for the missing word from answer choices. The best way to get the answer is taking into consideration the tense used in the given sentence and looking for the missing part of speech in the sentence.
Reading tips
1. Read without pronouncing each word (quiet reading)it increases the rate of skimming.
2. Determine what you need to know from the content. So knowing the heading is most important. It makes reading purposeful.
3. Do not read the whole content & read with understanding.
4. Do close reading to focus your mind.
Practice under testing conditions of timing (40minutes).


1.There is a video scenario from which you have to fill up a form. Don’t miss any point
2. Take care of spellings and make points.
3. Look for the main points and supporting details in a precise way.
4. Write in short phrases, don’t make sentences and write in boxes only.

Writing 2
1. Read the topic carefully and include all given points in your report.
2. Look for your grammar, structure and tenses & punctuation.Use good vocabulary, synonyms and don’t repeat words.
3. Write the report in proper sequence and make use of simple as well as compound sentences.
1. Write report in past tense & passive speech.
2. Mention location, time address and date.
3. Answer all the questions like who, what, when,where and how in the report.
4. Don’t use awkward phrases and don’t make stories. Mention condition of the patient at last in present tense.
Good knowledge of grammar is the key to pass the test.DO take out some time for proof reading for sure. Do not exceed the word limit and do not make a rough draft.Practice at least 20 incident reports at various situations. Handwriting should be readable and make proper sentences. Good vocabulary, correct use of tense, correct spellings, right sequence of events is very important.

Good speakers are good listeners. Listen the question. Speak in a rich and full voice. Stay calm and relaxed. Be careful of your body language. Make eye contact with the patient and speak with confidence.Be comfortable with the patient. Give your introduction impressively
Rehearse and make your video recording. Watch it. Be confident. The First impression is the last impression.Face is the index of your mind so, keep smiling.Use good vocabulary. Smile and make a good rapport with the patient. Use correct pronunciation and correct use of verb tense is very important. Do thank the patient for his co-operation. Do not forget to say “Thanks for your time” at the end.
How to take a test?
• Language is a great barrier when an individual moves from one place to another. In these cases. Most people give up before difficulties. Language learning is a time taking process. Conversation with local residents of that area helps a lot to overcome the language barrier along with learning through books or television shows. These language proficiency tests need perfecting and learning is a slow process. Prepare yourself to face challenges and believe in yourself.

HAAD/MOH Exam Exemption for NCLEX Passers/US Registered Nurses

Nclex passers are exempted from writing HAAD or MOH exams in UAE.


Per the HAAD Standard for Exemption from HAAD Examination for Licensure for Specified categories of Healthcare Professions effective April 2013 – US RNs are exempted from the taking examination, you only need to comply with the other requirements for licensure


Just make sure that data flow add your US license to it. License 1-PRC, submit then Add more para sa License 2 n USRN. You will need to pay extra 300 plus dirhams para sa verification ng US License mo sa dataflow

OET 2.0 Verified Study Materials PDF Free Download

OET 2.0 finally took off earlier today with some candidates already taken the test. If you are planning on taking the test, below are the verified materials you can download and use for your practice test.

To download click Here

For Doctors download Here

Additional practice material click Here


Urgent Vacancies for Nurses in UAE

PRESTIGE HOME HEALTH CARE SERVICES – Abu Dhabi urgently needs FEMALE HAAD RN Nurses for HOMECARE, currently located within UAE.

Initial salary offer: 7,000 AED

For interested applicants kindly send your CV to:

HAAD Exam For Nurses Sample Questions 2018



Question No : 1 –

An elderly patient is admitted to the hospital with swollen ankles. The best way to limit
edema of the feet is for the nurse to:

  • A. Restrict fluids
  • B. Apply bandages
  • C. Elevate the legs
  • D. Do passive range of motion exercises (ROM)

Answer : C


Question No : 2 –

Which of the following actions is the most effective measure to reduce hospital acquired

  • A. Double bagging of all contaminated laundry
  • B. Restricting visitors of infectious patients
  • C. Using disposable supplies
  • D. Correct hand washing

Answer : D


Question No : 3 –

A patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse would expect the physician to

  • A. Regular insulin IV
  • B. NPH insulin SC
  • C. Glucagon IM
  • D. Mixed insulin SC

Answer : A


Question No : 4 –

The rationale for having the patient void before an abdominal paracentesis procedure is to:

  • A. Minimize discomfort
  • B. Avoid abdominal distention
  • C. Prevent bladder puncture
  • D. Reduce infection rate

Answer : C

Question No : 5 –

An 85-year-old man is admitted with dementia. He continuously attempts to remove his
nasogastric tube. The nurse applies cloth wrist restraints as ordered. Which of the following
actions by the nurse is most appropriate?

  • A. Evaluate the need to restrain by observing patient’s behavior once every 24 hrs
  • B. Perform circulation checks to the extremities every two hours
  • C. Remove the restraints when the patient is sleeping
  • D. Instruct family to limit physical contact with the patient

Answer : B


Question No : 6 –

During balloon inflation of an indwelling urinary catheter, the patient complains of pain and
discomfort. The nurse should:

  • A. Continue the procedure and assure the patient
  • B. Aspirate the fluid and remove the catheter
  • C. Withdraw the fluid and reinsert the catheter
  • D. Decrease the amount of injected fluid and secure

Answer : C


Question No : 7 –

A patient is to receive 25mg/hr of an aminophylline infusion. The solution prepared by the
pharmacy contains 500mg of aminophylline in 1000ml of D5W. How many milligrams are
available per ml?

  • A. 0.25 mg/ml
  • B. 0.5 mg/ml
  • C. 1 mg/ml
  • D. 2 mg/ml

Answer : B


Question No : 8 –

A patient has had a total hip joint replacement. Which of the following actions should the
nurse consider for the patient’s daily recommended exercise program?

  • A. Administering an analgesic before exercising
  • B. Discontinuing the program if the patient dislikes it
  • C. Continuing exercises inspire of severe pain
  • D. Evaluating effectiveness of exercise based on pain scaleAnswer : A


Question No : 9 –

Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that
would indicate this complication to the nurse would be:

  • A. Intermittent claudication
  • B. Pitting edema of the area
  • C. Severe pain when raising the legs
  • D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site

Answer : D


Question No : 10 –

Which of the following techniques should the nurse implement to prevent the patient’s
mucous membranes from drying when the oxygen flow rate is higher than 4 liters per

  • A. Use a non rebreather mask
  • B. Add humidity to the delivery system
  • C. Use a high flow oxygen delivery system
  • D. Ensure that the prongs are in the nares correctly

Answer : B

Question No : 11 –

Extrapyramidal adverse effects and symptoms are most often associated with which of the
following drug classes?

  • A. Antidepressants
  • B. Antipsychotics
  • C. Antihypertensives
  • D. Antidysrhythmics

Answer : B

Question No : 12 –

A construction worker was brought to the emergency department and admitted with the
diagnosis of heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity during hot weather conditions.
Which action should the nurse take?

  • A. Immediately immerse the patient in cold water to reduce the patient’s temperature
  • B. Administer an antipyretic such as aspirin or acetaminophen
  • C. Place ice packs to the neck, axillae, scalp and groin
  • D. Encourage foods and oral fluids that contain carbohydrates and electrolytesAnswer : C


Question No : 13 –

The nurse should observe for which of the following symptoms in a patient who has just
undergone a total thyroidectomy:

  • A. Weight gain
  • B. Depressed reflexes
  • C. Muscle spasm and twitching
  • D. Irritable behavior

Answer : C


Question No : 14 –

Which of the following indicates the nurse is engaging in a therapeutic nurse-patient

  • A. The nurse establishes a relationship that is mutually beneficial
  • B. The nurse demonstrates sympathetic feelings toward the patient
  • C. The nurse commits to helping the patient find ways to help self
  • D. The nurse utilizes therapeutic touch to convey acceptance of the patient

Answer : C


Question No : 15 –

One factor affecting the pharmokinetics of older patients’ drug absorption is:

  • A. Decreased gastrointestinal motility
  • B. A difficulty in swallowing
  • C. A prevalence of obesity
  • D. Numerous medications

Answer : A


Question No : 36 –

Pain management for terminally ill patients is most effective when analgesics are given:

  • A. Around the clock
  • B. Only when clearly needed
  • C. After non-pharmacological methods fail
  • D. As the patient requests them

Answer : A


Question No : 37 –

The physician orders 20 u of U-100 regular insulin. The only syringe on hand is a 1 ml
tuberculin syringe. How many milliliters should be administered?

  • A. 0.02 ml
  • B. 0.2 ml
  • C. 1 ml
  • D. 2 ml

Answer : B


Question No : 38 –

The urinary catheter is kept securely in the bladder by:

  • A. Taping the urinary catheter to the leg
  • B. Securing catheter and collection bag connections
  • C. Inflating the balloon of the catheter
  • D. Anchoring the catheter bag to the bed

Answer : C


Question No : 39 –

Order: Compazine 8 mg IM stat. Drug availablE.10 mg/ 2mL in vial.
How many mLs would you give?

  • A. 0.6 mL
  • B. 1.6 mL
  • C. 2.6 mL
  • D. 3.6 mL

Answer : B


Question No : 40 –

A medication was ordered by a physician. The nurse believes the medication dose is
incorrect. What should the nurse do next?

  • A. Clarify the order with another physician who is available on the unit
  • B. Ask the nurse in charge if the order is correct
  • C. Contact the pharmacy department
  • D. Call the physician who prescribed the medication

Answer : D


Question No : 41 –

The immediate treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:

  • A. Precordial blow
  • B. Defibrillation
  • C. Bolus of lidocaine
  • D. Ventricular pacing

Answer : B


Question No : 42 –

A patient requires tracheal suctioning through the nose. Which of the following nursing
action would be incorrect?

  • A. Lubricating the catheter with sterile water
  • B. Applying suction while withdrawing the catheter from the nose
  • C. Applying suction for a minimum of 30 seconds
  • D. Rotating the catheter while withdrawing it

Answer : C

Question No : 43 –

Thirty minutes after starting a blood transfusion a patient develops tachycardia and
tachypnea and complains of chills and low back pain. The nurse recognizes these
symptoms as characteristic of:

  • A. Circulatory overload
  • B. Mild allergy
  • C. Febrile response
  • D. Hemolytic reaction

Answer : D


Question No : 44 –

To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:

  • A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
  • B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
  • C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
  • D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient

Answer : B

Question No : 45 –

Order: 1000 ml of D5W to run for 12 hours. Using a micro drip set calculate the drops per
minute (gtts/min):

  • A. 20 gtts/min
  • B. 45 gtts/min
  • C. 60 gtts/min
  • D. 83 gtts/min

Answer : D


Question No : 46 –

Which of the following tasks requires specialized education and should be performed by
the nurse only after the training has been completed?

  • A. Administering a dose of promethazine (Phenergan) via intravenous push (IVP)
  • B. Applying a transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic)
  • C. Instilling tobramycin (Tobrex) ophthalmic solution
  • D. Beginning an intravenous infusion of cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

Answer : D


Question No : 47 –

The patient is to receive 100 ml/hr of D5W through a micro drip. How many drops per
minute should the patient receive?

  • A. 25 gtts/min
  • B. 30 gtts/min
  • C. 100 gtts/min
  • D. 200 gtts/min

Answer : C




Question No : 48 –

Immediately after a craniotomy for head trauma, the nurse must monitor the drainage on
the dressing. Which of the following should be reported?

  • A. Blood tinged
  • B. Straw colored
  • C. Clotted
  • D. Foul-smelling

Answer : B


Question No : 49 –

Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement if a patient complains of
cramps while irrigating the colostomy?

  • A. Reduce the flow of solution
  • B. Have the patient sit up in bed
  • C. Remove the irrigation tube
  • D. Insert the tube further into the colon

Answer : A


Question No : 50 –

A nurse is not familiar with a particular solution ordered to irrigate a patient’s wound. The
appropriate action would be to:

  • A. Check if the solution is available on the ward, and if so, use it to clean the wound
  • B. Put a neat line through the order and re-write the solution more commonly used
  • C. Check with the Pharmacist about the uses of the solution ordered
  • D. Ask the patient what solution he would prefer to be used

Answer : C


Question No : 51 –

A 65-year-old patient is admitted with ischemic stroke. Which of the following would be
initially assessed by the nurse to determine the patients level of consciousness?

  • A. Visual fields
  • B. Deep tendon reflexes
  • C. Auditory acuity
  • D. Verbal response

Answer : D


Question No : 52 –

While preparing for a kidney biopsy the nurse should position the patient:

  • A. Prone with a sandbag under the abdomen
  • B. Lateral opposite to biopsy site
  • C. Supine in bed with knee flexion
  • D. Lateral flexed knee-chest

Answer : A


Question No : 53 –

To promote accuracy of self-monitoring blood glucose by patients the nurse should:

  • A. Retrain patients periodically
  • B. Direct patients to rotate testing sites
  • C. Advise patients to buy new strips routinely
  • D. Compare results from patient’s meter against lab results

Answer : A


Question No : 54 –

After administration of penicillin, a patient develops respiratory distress and severe
bronchospasm. The nurse should:

  • A. Contact the physician
  • B. Apply ice packs to the axilla
  • C. Assess the patient for orthostatic hypotension
  • D. Encourage the patient to take slow deep breaths

Answer : A


Question No : 55 –

The administration of which of the following types of parenteral fluids would result in a
lowering of the osmotic pressure and cause the fluid to move into the cells?

  • A. Hypotonic
  • B. Isotonic
  • C. Hypertonic
  • D. Colloid

Answer : A


Question No : 56 –

A newborn infant is assessed using the Apgar assessment tool and scores 6. The infant
has a heart rate of 95, slow and irregular respiratory effort, and some flexion of extremities.
The infant is pink, but has a weak cry. The nurse should know that this Apgar score along
with the additional symptoms indicates the neonate is:

  • A. Functioning normally
  • B. Needing immediate life-sustaining measures
  • C. Needing special assistance
  • D. Needing to be warmed

Answer : C

Question No : 57 –

Nursing management of the patient with external otitis includes:

  • A. Irrigating the ear canal with warm saline several hours after instilling lubricating ear drops
  • B. Inserting an ear wick into the external canal before instilling the ear drops to disperse the medication
  • C. Teaching the patient how to instill antibiotic drops into the ear canal before swimming
  • D. Instilling ear drops without the dropper touching the auricle and positioning the ear upward for 2 minutes afterwards

Answer : D

Question No : 58 –

The best example of documentation of patient teaching regarding wound care is:

  • A. “The patient was instructed about care of wound and dressing changes”
  • B. “The patient demonstrated correct technique of wound care following instruction”
  • C. “The patient and family verbalize that they understand the purposes of wound care”
  • D. “Written instructions regarding wound care and dressing changes were given to the patient”

Answer : B

Question No : 59 –

A patient is ordered 75mg of pethidine which comes in an ampoule of 100mg/2ml. What
would the nurse do with the remaining pethidine after drawing up the required dose?

  • A. Lock up the remaining dose in the medication cupboard to use later
  • B. Ask a fellow staff nurse to witness the disposal of the remaining drug
  • C. Use the remaining dose within 2 hours for another patient
  • D. Pour the remaining dose down the nearest sink

Answer : B


Question No : 60 –

A nurse can ensure she maintains her competency to practice through:

  • A. Being involved in continuing education programs
  • B. Making sure that what was learnt at nursing school is strictly followed
  • C. Closely carrying out instructions given by the Charge Nurse
  • D. Working on the same ward for at least 2 years

Answer : A


Question No : 61 –

The patient with liver cirrhosis receives 100 ml of 25% serum albumin intravenously. Which
of the following findings would best indicate that the albumin is having its desired effect?

  • A. Decreased blood pressure
  • B. Increased serum albumin level
  • C. Increased urine output
  • D. Improved breathing pattern

Answer : C


Question No : 62 –

The nurse should suspect that a patient has bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract
when the color of the patient’s stool is:

  • A. Yellow
  • B. Black
  • C. Clay
  • D. Red

Answer : B


Question No : 63 –

A registered nurse delegates care to a practical nurse. The person most responsible for the
safe performance of the care is the:

  • A. Head nurse who is in-charge of the unit
  • B. The practical nurse assigned to provide the care
  • C. The registered nurse who delegated the care to the practical nurse
  • D. The nursing care coordinator who is the supervisor of the unit

Answer : C


Question No : 64 –

A deficiency of which of the following vitamins can affect the absorption of calcium?

  • A. Vitamin C
  • B. Vitamin B6
  • C. Vitamin D
  • D. Vitamin B12

Answer : C


Question No : 65 –

A patient with a central venous line develops sudden clinical manifestations that include a
decrease in blood pressure, an elevated heart rate, cyanosis, tachypnea, and changes in
mental status. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

  • A. An air embolism
  • B. Circulatory overload
  • C. Venous thrombosis
  • D. Developing bacteremia

Answer : A


Question No : 66 –

When taking routine post-operative observations on a patient who underwent an
exploratory laparotomy, the nurse plans to monitor which important finding over the next

  • A. Serosanguinous drainage on the surgical dressing
  • B. Blood pressure of 105/65 mmHg
  • C. Urinary output of 20 mls in the last hour
  • D. Temperature of 37.6 °C

Answer : C


Question No : 67 –

When the nurse is caring for a patient placed on droplet precautions, the nurse should:

  • A. Have the patient wear a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask
  • B. Wear a surgical mask when standing within 3 feet (1 meter) of the patient
  • C. Assign the patient to a room with monitored negative air pressure
  • D. Apply a disposable gown when entering the patient’s room

Answer : B


Question No : 68 –

A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:

  • A. Dehydration
  • B. Subinvolution
  • C. Hemorrhage
  • D. Hypertension

Answer : C

Question No : 69 –

Collection urine bag should be emptied as necessary and at least every 8 – 9 hours to

  • A. Pooling of urine in the tube
  • B. Reflux of urine into the bladder
  • C. Pulling on catheter
  • D. Bacterial contamination

Answer : D


Question No : 70 –

Which of the following statements accurately describes the occurrence of dyspnea in
patients who are receiving end of life care?

  • A. Dyspnea is only experienced by patients who have primary diagnoses that involve the lungs
  • B. Dyspnea occurs in less than 50% of the patients who are receiving end of life care
  • C. Dyspnea that is caused by increased fluid volume may be improved by diuretics
  • D. Dyspnea may be caused by antibiotic therapy used over a long period of time

Answer : C


Question No : 71 –

The patient has a nursing diagnosis of altered cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral
edema. An appropriate nursing intervention for this problem is to:

  • A. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees
  • B. Provide a position of comfort with knee flexion
  • C. Provide uninterrupted periods of rest
  • D. Ensure adequate hydration with mannitol

Answer : A


Question No : 72 –

While assessing a patient, the nurse learns that he has a history of allergic rhinitis, asthma,
and multiple food allergies. The nurse must:

  • A. Be alert to hypersensitivity response to the prescribed medications
  • B. Encourages the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case of an allergic reaction
  • C. Advise the patient to use aspirin in case of febrile illnesses
  • D. Admit the patient to a single room with limited exposure to health care personnel

Answer : A


Question No : 73 –

The nurse should administer nasogastric tube (NGT) feeding slowly to reduce the hazard

  • A. Distention
  • B. Abdominal cramps
  • C. Diarrhea
  • D. Regurgitation

Answer : A


Question No : 74 –

A patient arrived to the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) complaining of pain after
undergoing a right total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following should the nurse do to
assess the patient’s level of pain?

  • A. Determine the patient’s position during surgery and how long the patient was in this position
  • B. Inspect the dressing, note type and amount of drainage, and insure bandage adhesive is not pulling on skin
  • C. Ask anesthesiologist what type of anesthesia patient received and last dose of pain medication
  • D. Note location, intensity and duration of pain and last dose and time of pain medication

Answer : D


Question No : 75 –

When caring for a patient with impaired mobility that occurred as a result of a stroke (right
sided arm and leg weakness). The nurse would suggest that the patient use which of the
following assistive devices that would provide the best stability for ambulating?

  • A. Crutches
  • B. Single straight-legged cane
  • C. Quad cane
  • D. Walker

Answer : C


Question No : 76 –

The nurse teaches a patient recovering from a total hip replacement that it is important to

  • A. Putting a pillow between the legs while sleeping
  • B. Sitting with the legs crossed
  • C. Abduction exercises of the affected leg
  • D. Bearing weight exercises on the affected leg for 6 weeks

Answer : B


Question No : 77 –

A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:

  • A. Generalized burning sensation
  • B. Intermittent colicky pain
  • C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
  • D. Colicky pain intensified by food

Answer : C


Question No : 78 –

You have started work on a new ward. One of the patient’s allocated to you has been on
the ward for the last 7 months since she had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). You notice
that her nursing care plan says strict bed rest, but on assessment you can not see any
reason why this patient can not sit out of bed for short periods. Your nursing action would

  • A. Check with the other nursing staff as to reasons behind the nursing care plan then update the plan based on your assessment
  • B. Follow the nursing care plan strictly as this would have been developed after a detailed and collaborative assessment
  • C. Seek physician’s orders so that you have permission to move the patient
  • D. Try and move the patient without consulting with anyone to see how she manages

Answer : A


Question No : 79 –

A nurse prepares a narcotic analgesic for administration, but the patient refuses to take it.
Which of the following actions by the nurse is most appropriate?

  • A. Encourage the patient to reconsider taking the medication
  • B. Label the medication and replace it for use at a later time
  • C. Discard the medication in the presence of a witness and chart the action
  • D. Call the physician with the patient’s refusal to take the prescribed medication

Answer : C


Question No : 80 –

A patient who sustained a chest injury has a chest tube inserted which is connected to an
under water seal drainage system. When caring for this patient the nurse will:

  • A. Instruct the patient to limit movement of the affected shoulder
  • B. Observe for fluctuation of the water level
  • C. Clamp the tube when needed
  • D. Administer hourly analgesia

Answer : B


Question No : 81 –

Which of the following laboratory blood values is expected to be decreased in hepatic

  • A. Albumin
  • B. Bilirubin
  • C. Ammonia
  • D. ALT and AST

Answer : A


Question No : 82 –

A patient with allergic rhinitis reports severe nasal congestion, sneezing, and watery eyes
at various times of the year. To teach the patient to control these symptoms the nurse
advises the patient to:

  • A. Avoid all over the counter intranasal sprays
  • B. Limit the use of nasal decongestant sprays to 10 days
  • C. Use oral decongestants at bedtime to prevent symptoms during the night
  • D. Keep a diary of when an allergic reaction occurs and what precipitates it

Answer : D


Question No : 83 –

The apical pulse can be best auscultated at the:

  • A. Left 2nd intercostal space lateral to the mid clavicular line
  • B. Left 2nd intercostal space at the left sternal border
  • C. Left 5th intercostal space at the mid clavicular line
  • D. Left 5th intercostal space at the mid axillary line

Answer : C

Question No : 84 –

The nurse notes that there are no physician’s orders regarding Fatima’s post operative
daily insulin dose. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to:

  • A. Withhold any insulin dose since none is ordered and the patient is NPO
  • B. Call the physician to clarify whether insulin should be given and at what dose
  • C. Give half the usual daily insulin dose since she will not be eating in the morning
  • D. Give the patient her usual daily insulin dose since the stress of surgery will increase her blood glucose

Answer : B


Question No : 85 –

An 8-month-old infant is diagnosed with communicating hydrocephalus. The nurse notices
that his intracranial pressure is increasing from the following changes in his vital signs:

  • A. Bradycardia, hypotension and hypothermia
  • B. Bradycardia, hypertension and hyperthermia
  • C. Tachycardia, hypotension and hyperthermia
  • D. Tachycardia, hypertension and hypothermia

Answer : B


Question No : 86 –

Whenever a child with thalassemia comes for blood transfusion, he is administered
Desferoxamine (Desferal). The action of this drug is to:

  • A. Inhibit the inflammatory process
  • B. Enhance iron excretion
  • C. Antagonize the effect of vitamin C
  • D. Increase red blood cell production

Answer : B


Question No : 87 –

A patient becomes angry and threatens to leave the hospital unless the physician reviews
the reason for the patient’s delay in discharge. The patient has a medication order for
agitation available p.m..but refuses the medication and requests a drink of orange juice
instead. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Secretly slip the p.r.n. medication into the orange juice and give it to the patient
  • B. Give the patient the orange juice and tell the patient that a staff member is attempting to call the physician
  • C. Inform the patient that staff is unable to force anyone to stay in the hospital
  • D. Inform the patient that nothing can be done until the morning

Answer : B


Question No : 88 –

A nurse prepares to set up a secondary intravenous (IV) cannula. The primary IV infusing
is normal saline. In order for the secondary cannula to infuse correctly, the nurse should set
up the primary IV to:

  • A. Hang higher than the secondary IV
  • B. Hang at the same level as the secondary IV
  • C. Hang lower than the secondary IV
  • D. Discontinue before the secondary IV starts

Answer : C


Question No : 89 –

A 21 year old woman is being treated for injuries sustained in a car accident. The patient
has a central venous pressure (CVP) line insitu. The nurse recognizes that CVP

  • A. Estimate Cardiac output
  • B. Assess myocardial workload
  • C. Determine need for fluid replacement
  • D. Determine ventilation – perfusion mismatch

Answer : C


Question No : 90 –

After application of a cast in the upper extremity, the patient complains of severe pain in the
affected site. Which of the following would the nurse initiate?

  • A. Administer analgesics as ordered
  • B. Assess neurovascular status
  • C. Notify his physician
  • D. Pad the edges of the cast

Answer : B


Question No : 96 –

The best dietary advice a nurse can give to a woman diagnosed with mild pregnancy-
induced hypertension is to:

  • A. Follow a strict low salt diet
  • B. Restrict fluid intake
  • C. Increase protein intake
  • D. Maintain a well-balanced diet

Answer : D


Question No : 97 –

A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

  • A. 11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min. , 100/70 mm Hg
  • B. 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg
  • C. 5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg
  • D. 6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg

Answer : B


Question No : 98 –

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate when the nurse is responding to a
patient during a tonic-clonic seizure?

  • A. Restrain the patient
  • B. Protect the patient from harm
  • C. Minimize noise and light stimulus
  • D. Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula

Answer : B





Question No : 99 –

The patient’s pre-operative blood pressure was 120/68 mmHg. On admission to the Post
Anesthesia Care Unit, the blood pressure was 124/70 mmHg. Thirty minutes after
admission, the patient’s blood pressure falls to 112/60 mmHg, pulse to 72 BPM, and the
skin appears warm and dry. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to:

  • A. Raise the head of the bed
  • B. Notify the anesthetist immediately
  • C. Increase the rate of IV fluid replacement
  • D. Continue to monitor the patient

Answer : D


Question No : 100 –

An 84-year-old man has arthritis and is admitted for a severely edematous knee. The
physician orders heat packs every 2 hours and you feel this order may worsen the tissue
congestion. An appropriate nursing action would be:

  • A. Contact the physician and discuss your concerns about the order
  • B. To include the order in the nursing care plan and monitor outcome
  • C. Complete an incident report form and document concerns in the nursing notes
  • D. Involve the patient by asking what his treatment preference is

Answer : A


Question No : 101 –

The nurse plans the care for a patient with increased intracranial pressure, she knows that
the best way to position the patient is to:

  • A. Keep patient in a supine position until stable
  • B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
  • C. Maintain patient on right side with head supported on a pillow
  • D. Keep patient in a semi-sitting position

Answer : B


Question No : 102 –

The coronary care nurse draws an Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) sample to assess a patient for
acidosis. A normal pH for arterial blood is:

  • A. 7.0 – 7.24
  • B. 7.25 – 7.34
  • C. 7.35 – 7.45
  • D. 7.5 – 7.6

Answer : C


Question No : 103 –

A patient voided a urine specimen at 9:00 AM. The specimen should be sent to the
laboratory before:

  • A. 9:30 AM
  • B. 10:00 AM
  • C. 10:30 AM
  • D. 11:00 AM

Answer : A


Question No : 104 –

Which of the following correctly describes wound packing in a wet to dry dressing?

  • A. Pack gauze into the wound tightly
  • B. Overlap the wound edges with wet packing
  • C. Pack the wound with slightly moistened gauze
  • D. Use gauze well saturated with saline for packing the wound

Answer : C


Question No : 105 –

To prevent post-operative thrombophlebitis, which one of the following measures is

  • A. Elevation of the leg on two pillows
  • B. Using of compression stocking at night
  • C. Massage the calf muscle frequently
  • D. Performing leg exercises

Answer : D


Question No : 106 –

The mother of a child with nephrotic syndrome asks why her child must be weighed each
morning. The nurse’s response should be based on the fact that this is important to
determine the:

  • A. Nutritional status
  • B. Water retention
  • C. Medication doses
  • D. Blood volume

Answer : B


Question No : 107 –

When caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy the nurse may carry out the
following orders: give enemas, provide a low protein diet, and limit physical activities.
These measures are performed to:

  • A. Minimize edema
  • B. Decrease portal pressure
  • C. Reduce hyperkalemia
  • D. Decrease serum ammonia

Answer : D


Question No : 108 –

A patient is to receive 2.5mg of morphine sulfate. The ampoule contains l000mcg/mL. How
much morphine should the nurse administer?

  • A. 0.25 ml
  • B. 1 ml
  • C. 1.5 ml
  • D. 2.5 ml

Answer : D


Question No : 109 –

When the post-operative patient returns to the surgical unit, the priority is to:

  • A. Assess the patient’s pain
  • B. Measure the patient’s vital signs
  • C. Monitor the rate of the IV infusion
  • D. Check the physician’s post-operative orders

Answer : B


Question No : 110 –

While preparing the midday medications, the nurse finds difficulty reading the label on a
medicine bottle. The best action by the nurse is to:

  • A. Document that it could not be given due to difficulty in reading the label
  • B. Make out a new label with clear handwriting using adhesive tape to attach it
  • C. Ask the pharmacist to replace it with a clearly labeled bottle
  • D. Give the medication if it is similar to a bottle present on the trolley

Answer : C


Question No : 111 –

To ensure safe practice during defibrillation, the nurse must:

  • A. Cover paddles with electrode gel
  • B. Avoid touching the patient’s bed
  • C. Remove paddles after the shock
  • D. Synchronize prior to shock delivery

Answer : B


Question No : 112 –

The physician orders heparin 40 000 U in 1 liter of D5W IV to infuse at 1000 U/hr. What is
the flow rate in milliliters per hour?

  • A. 250 mls/hr
  • B. 25 mls/hr
  • C. 2.5 mls/hr
  • D. 0.25 mls/hr

Answer : B


Question No : 113 –

What two behaviors are important when documenting the depth of the patients

  • A. Orientation and appearance
  • B. Helplessness and hopelessness
  • C. Affect and thought processes
  • D. Mood and impulse control

Answer : B

Question No : 114 –

The nurse knows that the greatest risk for a patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy is:

  • A. Hemorrhage leading to hypovolemic shock
  • B. Strictures and scarring of the fallopian tube
  • C. Adhesions and scarring from blood in the abdomen
  • D. Infertility resulting from treatment with a salpingectomy

Answer : A


Question No : 115 –

The nurse manager has just prepared a medication for a patient and she asked you to give
the medication. Which of the following is the best response to the nurse manager’s

  • A. Give the patient his medication and record it on the chart
  • B. Ask another nursing colleague to give and record the medication
  • C. Explain that you cannot give a medication that you did not prepare
  • D. Give the medication and ask the nurse manager to record it on the chart

Answer : C


Question No : 116 –

A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,
hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and
decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse
should suspect:

  • A. Renal failure
  • B. Sepsis
  • C. Pneumonia
  • D. Dehydration

Answer : D


Question No : 117 –

A patient is to receive 50mL of fluid in 1/2 hour (30 min). The infusion pump should be set
to deliver how many milliters per hour?

  • A. 25 ml/hr
  • B. 50 ml/hr
  • C. 75 ml/hr
  • D. 100 ml/hr

Answer : D


Question No : 118 –

A patient with a history of angina pectoris arrives in emergency complaining of headache,
visual disturbances and feeling dizzy. Your nursing assessment also notes he looks
flushed, is perspiring perfusely and is experiencing palpitations. You should suspect:

  • A. An overdose of sublingual nitroglycerin
  • B. The onset of a myocardial infarction
  • C. The patient has been over exercising
  • D. The beginning of a severe chest infection

Answer : A

Question No : 119 –

The purpose of a cardiac pacemaker is to:

  • A. Initiate and maintain the heart rate when SA node is unable to do so
  • B. Stabilize the heart rate when it is above 100 beats per minute
  • C. Stabilize the heart when the patient has had a heart attack
  • D. Regulate the heart when the patient is going for open heart surgery

Answer : A

Question No : 120 –

A nurse has been working in a general hospital on the same medical unit for 6 years. The
Behavioral Unit is desperately short staffed and the nurse is asked to work her shift in this
other unit. What would be the expected response of the nurse to this request?

  • A. “I will go to the unit and hopefully the behavioral health staff members will assist me with my assignment.”
  • B. “I cannot go. I have no previous behavioral health experience. I do not want to reduce the quality of patient care.”
  • C. “I have no previous behavioral health experience. I am willing to go and help with any duties that are similar to those I perform on my unit.”
  • D. “I should not be expected to float to another unit without a proper orientation. I will fill out an incident report if I am sent there.”

Answer : C


Question No : 121 –

Order: Allopurinol 450 mg p.o. daily. Drug availablE.Allopurinol 300 mg scored tablets.
Which of the following will you administer?

  • A. 0.5 tablet
  • B. 1.5 tablets
  • C. 2 tablets
  • D. 2.5 tablets

Answer : B


Question No : 122 –

The correct way to trim the toe nails of a patient with diabetes is to:

  • A. Cut the nails in a curve and then file
  • B. Cut the nails straight across and then file
  • C. File the nails straight across and square only
  • D. File the nails in a curved arch with low sides only

Answer : C


Question No : 123 –

A patient complains of pain in his right arm. The physician orders codeine 45 mg and
aspirin 650 mgs every 4 hours PRN. Each codeine tablet contains 15mg of codeine and
each aspirin tablet contains 325mg of aspirin. What should the nurse administer?

  • A. 2 codeine tablets and 4 aspirin tablets
  • B. 4 codeine tablets and 3 ½ aspirin tablets
  • C. 3 codeine tablets and 2 aspirin tablets
  • D. 3 codeine tablets and 3 aspirin tablets

Answer : C


Question No : 124 –

During the acute phase of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) the nurse should maintain the
patient in which of the following positions?

  • A. Semi-prone with the head of the bed elevated 60-90 degrees
  • B. Lateral, with the head of the bed flat
  • C. Prone, with the head of the bed flat
  • D. Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 30-45 degrees

Answer : D



Question No : 125 –

A patient on diuretics has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the
following is this patient most at risk for developing?

  • A. Hypokalemia and cardiac arrhythmias
  • B. Hypercalcemia and polyuria
  • C. Dehydration and hyperglycemia
  • D. Hyperalimentation and heart block

Answer : A


Question No : 126 –

A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best
response of the nurse to this order is to:

  • A. Give the dose immediately and once
  • B. Give medication if patient’s blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
  • C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
  • D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary

Answer : A


Question No : 127 –

Which of the following is the most appropriate first action for the nurse to take for a pre-
schooler who has fallen and has a hematoma formed on the temporal bone?

  • A. Encourage a nap
  • B. Give pain medication
  • C. Apply ice and monitor vital signs
  • D. Allow the child to continue activities

Answer : C


Question No : 128 –

The minimal amount of urine that a post-operative patient weighing 60 kgs should pass is?

  • A. 120 ml/hr
  • B. 90 ml/hr
  • C. 60 ml/hr
  • D. 30 ml/hr

Answer : D


Question No : 129 –

You are the nurse providing post-operative care for a 9 year old boy who is 6 hours post-
tonsillectomy. He is sleeping, but on routine observation you notice that his pulse has
increased, he seems to be restless and trying to swallow frequently. Your immediate action
would be:

  • A. Apply an ice collar to reduce discomfort
  • B. Allow child to keep sleeping and record observations
  • C. Wake him and offer some ice chips to suck
  • D. Check inside his mouth for any signs of bleeding and notify the physician

Answer : D


Question No : 130 –

When inserting a rectal suppository for a patient the nurse should?

  • A. Insert the suppository while the patient performs the ‘valsava maneuver’
  • B. Place the patient in a supine position
  • C. Position the suppository beyond the muscle sphincter of the rectum
  • D. Insert the suppository 1/2 inch into the rectum

question_answerVIEW ANSWER

Answer : C


Question No : 131 –

A patient with pneumonia is coughing up purulent thick sputum. Which one of the following
nursing measures is most likely helpful to loosen the secretions?

  • A. Postural drainage
  • B. Breathing humidified air
  • C. Percussion over the affected lung
  • D. Coughing and deep breathing exercises

Answer : B


Question No : 132 –

A patient is admitted to a hospital with acute renal failure. The patient wakes up
complaining of abdominal pain. On assessment, the nurse observes edema to the patient’s
ankles and distended neck veins. The patient is dyspneic with a blood pressure of 200/96
mmHg. The proper nursing diagnosis for this patient is:

  • A. Deficient fluid volume related to disease process
  • B. Excess fluid volume related to decreased glomerular filtration rate
  • C. Knowledge deficit related to proper medication regimen
  • D. Acute pain related to renal edema

Answer : B


Question No : 133 –

A patient arrives at the emergency department with slurred speech and a right facial droop.
The patient’s relative states the patient “is not himself.” Upon assessment, the nurse finds
paresthesia to the right side of the body, receptive aphasia, hemianopia and altered
cognitive abilities. The nurse should suspect:

  • A. A narcotic overdose
  • B. Parkinson’s disease
  • C. Alcohol withdrawal
  • D. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

Answer : D


Question No : 134 –

The nurse is preparing teaching plans for several patients. The nurse should recognize
which of the following patients is at greatest risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

  • A. A 2-year-old patient who is receiving gastrostomy feedings
  • B. A 20-year-old patient with a sigmoid colostomy
  • C. A 40-year-old patient who is 3 days post-operative with an ileostomy
  • D. A 60-year-old patient who is 8 hours post-renal arteriography

Answer : C


Question No : 135 –

A 3-month-old infant is admitted with a diagnosis of ventricular septal defect. The physical
assessment for this infant would reveal:

  • A. High pitched cry
  • B. Harsh heart murmur
  • C. Bradycardia
  • D. Hypertension

Answer : B


Question No : 136 –

A young patient is extremely irritable due to meningitis. It would be most important for the
nurse to:

  • A. Use low-level lighting in the room
  • B. Ventilate the room
  • C. Eliminate strong odors
  • D. Allow frequent visitors

Answer : A


Question No : 137 –

A male patient with a right pleural effusion noted on a chest X-ray is being prepared for
thoracentesis. The patient experiences severe dizziness when sitting upright. To provide a
safe environment, the nurse assists the patient to which position for the procedure?

  • A. Prone with head turned toward the side supported by a pillow
  • B. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat
  • C. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
  • D. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees

Answer : D


Question No : 138 –

A newborn is diagnosed with ventricular septal defect. The baby is discharged with a
prescription for digoxin syrup 20 micrograms bid. The bottle of digoxin is labeled as 0.05
mg/ml. The nurse should teach the mother to administer on each dose:

  • A. 0.1 ml
  • B. 0.2 ml
  • C. 0.4 ml
  • D. 0.8 ml

Answer : C


Question No : 139 –

As a part of the treatment given to a child with leukemia the child is placed on reverse
barrier isolation to:

  • A. Protect the child from injury
  • B. Protect the child from infectious agents
  • C. Provide the child with a quiet environment
  • D. Keep the child away from other children

Answer : B


Question No : 140 –

The nurse should be aware that tetracycline is contraindicated in children under 12 years of
age because:

  • A. Minimal doses are needed to control infection
  • B. Immunosuppression is a common side effect
  • C. Staining of the teeth is an adverse effect
  • D. They are prone to develop renal failure

Answer : C


Question No : 146 –

When caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis, the patient is most likely to complain of
pain which is:

  • A. Severe and located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the groin
  • B. Burning and located in the epigastric area and radiating to the groin
  • C. Severe and located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back
  • D. Burning and located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the back

Answer : C


Question No : 147 –

The best time for the nurse to teach an anxious patient about the patient controlled
analgesic (PCA) pump would be during which of the following stages of patient care?

  • A. Post-operative
  • B. Pre-operative
  • C. Intraoperative
  • D. Post anesthesia

Answer : B


Question No : 148 –

Elevated levels of amylase and lipase in the blood are common in:

  • A. Diabetes mellitus
  • B. Esophagitis
  • C. Pancreatitis
  • D. Hepatitis

Answer : C


Question No : 149 –

In preparing the patient for electroencephalogram (EEG), the nurse should:

  • A. Withhold breakfast
  • B. Give sleeping pills the night before
  • C. Shave the hair
  • D. Restrict intake of coffee

Answer : D


Question No : 150 –

An 11 year old girl with a history of asthma arrives at the primary health clinic with
signs/symptoms of shortness of breath, audible wheezing, nasal flaring and mild lip
cyanosis. Your immediate nursing action is to:

  • A. Assess respiratory distress and peak expiratory flow rate
  • B. Take a blood sample to assess COlevels
  • C. Instruct the parents to take the child immediately to hospital
  • D. Sit the child comfortably and offer 2 puffs of ventolin stat

Answer : A


Question No : 141 –

While assessing an 84-year-old post-operative patient, the nurse observes that the patient
suddenly becomes very anxious, appears cyanotic and has severe dyspnea. The nurse
recognizes these symptoms to be consistent with:

  • A. Congestive heart failure
  • B. Pulmonary embolism
  • C. COPD exacerbation
  • D. Myocardial infarction

Answer : B


Question No : 142 –

When preparing an eye medication, the nurse reads the order “OS”. Medication is given

  • A. Both eyes
  • B. Left eye
  • C. Right eye
  • D. Infected eye

Answer : B


Question No : 143 –

A patient has been taking Aluminum Hydroxide daily for 3 weeks. The nurse should be alert
for which of the following side effects?

  • A. Constipation
  • B. Flatulence
  • C. Nausea
  • D. Vomiting

Answer : A


Question No : 144 –

An early sign of acute respiratory failure is:

  • A. Diaphoresis
  • B. Cyanosis
  • C. Restlessness
  • D. Orthopnea

Answer : C


Question No : 145 –

In caring for a woman and baby day 3 postnatally, she tells you that her baby has not had a
bowel action since delivery. Your appropriate response would be:

  • A. Reassure the mother that it is quite normal for a baby to not move their bowels until day 5 after a few days of milk feeding
  • B. Start a bowel chart, document all findings, and wait another 48 hours before reporting to the physician
  • C. Encourage more frequent warm baths for the neonate with gentle abdomen massages
  • D. Tell the mother that you will let the physician know, so the baby can be checked for any obstruction

Answer : D



UK NMC 2018 Review of Nursing Registration Process for Foreign Nurses

The nurses and midwives on our register must meet the same high standards we set, no matter where they’ve trained.


Because nurses and midwives from outside the EEA won’t have trained in the UK against our standards, we have additional processes in place to check that they meet our requirements.


We’re now reviewing our existing processes to make sure these are as straightforward as they can be and that we provide the right level of support to everyone who wants to register with us.


Why we’re carrying out a review

Our current overseas process has been in place since 2014. We know that there are many areas where it could be improved and we’ve had feedback from applicants and employers on their experiences that we want to respond to so that we can make our processes simpler and quicker for candidates.


We also need to update our tests and processes to reflect our new education standards, as well as the introduction of nursing associates, a new healthcare role, in January 2019.


What we’re reviewing

We’re reviewing all parts of our registration process including how candidates submit their application, the fees they pay, how they demonstrate they meet our UK standards and the evidence we require of their English language capability.


As part of this we’re looking to introduce a new system that will allow applicants to prepare and submit their application to us online and track its progress.


Give us your views

We want to hear about your experiences of our overseas registration process and your views on how it could be improved.


You can hear more about our proposals, ask questions and share your views at one of our upcoming events.


These will be a mix of group workshops and online webinars.


To attend the webinar go to

OET Accepted Countries For Nurses

Below is the list of all Nursing Boards accepting OET in their countries as of 2018:

  1. Australia
  2. Ireland
  3. Namibia
  4. New Zealand
  5. United Kingdom

We shall update this thread as others join

NMC OSCE Review: OSCE Revision For Nurses

APIE commonly mistakes:
1. Hand hygiene frequency
2. 3-way check identification
3. Allergy to food, drugs, and latex -its reactions as well
4. Preferred Name to be called my patient
5. Incomplete Obs Chart
6. Incorrect NEWS scoring (did not include Oxygen to the score)
7. Full 2mins checking of PR and RR
8. Did not properly address traps (table, stick, pillows on top)
9. Call bell
10. Showing compassion to the patient
11. Not having a S.M.A.R.T. planning
12. Did not include specific time and date in the re evaluation plan.
13. Copying of interventions from the 1st planning problem
14. Signature and Safe in Planning
15. Paracetamol traps in the implementation.
(overdosage 4grams/day only, patient underweight, previously given paracetamol, specific instruction to give – ex. for pyrexia)

16. Giving meds that is due for tomorrow
17. Not enough time in the implementation
18. Did not address the IV
19. Double checking of identity in the implementation
20. Touching the tablet.
21. Forgot to check drug expiry
22. Wrong dosage given
23. Forgot to inform patient of the drug’s indication and side effects.
24. Not giving tablets in separate drug cup.
25. Allergy to Penicillin – given Co Amoxiclav
26. Forgot to code drugd not given and write at the back of drug chart
27. Did not see the drug was coded by other nurse thereby including it to the drugs given in the evaluation.
28. Did not sign and write date in the evaluation.
29. Did not include the diagnosis in the reason for admission
30. Write or added an info in the evaluation which was not done in the API.
31. Incomplete drugs in the drugs given and drugs omitted in the evaluation.