KMTC Shortlisted Candidates For 2017/2018 Enrolled Community Health Nursing

Here is a list of KMTC Shortlisted Candidates for 2017/2018 Enrolled Community Health Nursing sponsored by World Bank

1 abbas kipkemoi cheboi 34507932 M Baringo
2 ABDI GOLLO JILLO 35446635 M Isiolo
3 ABDIMALIK ISSAK ADAN 242566 M Mandera
4 ABDIRAHMAN ADAN MOHAMED 032166 M Wajir
5 ABEL KIPRONO MUTAI 544319 M Nakuru
6 ABIGAEL CHERUTO KOSKEI 29610608 F Trans Nzoia
7 ABIGAEL MARGARET CHAWUCHA 34396210 F Taita-Taveta
8 ADAN MOHAMED ABDI 420088 M Garissa
9 AGNES MURUGI KARANI 32103543 F Embu
10 AGNES WAMUYU NJAGI 27712014 F Laikipia
11 Agripina Wali Meryce Mwanjala 27951089 F Taita-Taveta
12 Aisha Athman Shee 34172381 F Lamu
13 AISHA RAJAB CHIZI 35197511 F Mombasa
14 AKAI SHARON LOKAALA 32472863 F Turkana
15 Ali Salim Ali 34447520 M Lamu
16 ALIBASHIR HASSAN IBRAHIM 0242668 M Lamu
17 alice achieng ochieng 35291575 F Siaya
18 Amina Huka Wako 35313019 F Isiolo
19 AMINA ISAAK BOCHA 4321266 F Tana River
20 AMOS MORIASI MOGITA 33204282 M Nyamira
21 Andrew Halkano Sarr 33752531 M Marsabit
22 ANGELINE NJERI MUTUO 28218017 F Kitui
23 angella kanyiva kioko 30347711 F Machakos
24 Ann Mugure Guchu 31518268 F Kiambu
25 ANNE KEZZIAH KABAGE 30548202 F Nyeri
26 ANNET IMINZA AKHANDA 33899491 F Vihiga
27 ANTONY K JOHN 30030583 M Kitui
28 ANTONY KIBET MUSA 29695591 M West Pokot
29 ARISI MORAA REBECAH 33341785 F Nyamira
30 BAARIU JOSEPH THURANIRA 433721 M Isiolo
31 BABRA CHEPCHUMBA BELIO 33080154 F Bungoma
32 Bahati Abdalla Mwadele 28999391 F Kwale
33 BALALA NDETO SAMMY 34463112 M Kitui
34 BARAK ADAN MOHAMED 1257001 M Marsabit
35 BASHORA KIRIBAI TUMAINI 888783 M Kilifi
36 Beatrice Wachia Mwanyalo 27213970 F Taita-Taveta
37 Beatrice Wambui Muhoria 34197575 F Nyeri
38 Bellah Khamonyi Murundu 30239273 F Vihiga
39 BENJAMIN KIPKOSGEI TALAM 22248240 M Nandi
40 BENSON MATHINA MUINDE 32427120 M Machakos
41 Bernadetta Naisula Leitore 35196795 F Samburu
42 bernard otieno riwa 13786995 M Siaya
43 BERYL AWUOR THURE 33154964 F Nairobi
44 BETTY WANJIKU MARIGI 27315636 F Muranga
45 BILOW HARUNI KUSOU 34043113 M Lamu
46 BINTI YAHYA JOHARI 738967 F Kwale
47 BISMARK TULASO LETOWON 34467841 M Samburu
48 BONIFACE KIBIWOT KIPSIROR 34134213 M Elgeyo Marakwet
49 BRENDA CHEPKEMOI 33995788 F Kericho
50 BRENDA MWISE CHACHA 30191213 F Nakuru
51 CAROLINE GACHUI KORONYA 30180026 F Samburu
52 CAROLINE MAKENA THAARA 33349029 F Tharaka-Nithi
53 Caroline Mbulwa Lui 30003978 F Makueni
54 CAROLYNE CHEPCHUMBA MITEI 29312461 F Elgeyo Marakwet
55 CARREN NAMWAYA SOITA 24751249 F Kakamega
56 Catherine Nyambura Mwai 32694991 F Kiambu
57 charline nyawira njiraini 319808722 F Kirinyaga
58 CHEMTAI ADELLAH 0371405462 F Trans Nzoia
59 CHEMTAI IRENE MAASAI 32517133 F Bungoma
60 CHEPKEMOI SELINA LOLUK 04100134 F West Pokot
61 chepkirui SOY jacinta 30538054 F Bomet
62 CHESANG MILDRED KIPCHUMBA 34038686 F Vihiga
63 Christina Joyce Mutiso 21068915 F Kitui
64 Christine Mumbua Kilonzo 27882457 F Makueni
65 Clinton Taiko Kilakoi 33439198 M Kajiado
66 COLLINS MUNENE MIRITI 31556572 M Tharaka-Nithi
67 CYNTHIA CHEROTICH CHERUIYOT 012132984 F Kericho
68 DAISY CHEPKIRUI 29757933 F Nakuru
69 DALMAS KIPTANUI NGETICH 33585704 M Nandi
70 DAMARIS NYARIS 32320083 F Trans Nzoia
71 DAMARIS MUYANTET LAKANET 1007829 F Kajiado
72 DANIEL OCHOI GIANKO 29496610 M Kisii
73 DAVID MAINA MUCHAMI 31399625 M Laikipia
74 David Ndiritu Kiboi 28573117 M Nyeri
75 DAVID NGURE MWAMBEWA 27752013 M Taita-Taveta
76 Dennis Mwangi Wangui 541258 M Kiambu
77 DERRICKSON MUNENE KILEI 34175228 M Nairobi
78 Dhahabu p Yeri 27701259 F Kilifi
79 Diana Jelagat Ronoh 31880027 F Uasin Gishu
80 DOMTILA CHEROP TERER 34500270 F West Pokot
81 DORCAS MUREITA NENTIEN 26996550 F Kajiado
82 DORCAS NDANU MUTUNGA 33424429 F Makueni
83 Dorothy Mbete Kinyungu 23875618 F Kitui
84 EDAH CHEMUTAI LANGAT 27429136 F Bomet
85 EDDA JEBICHII SAWE 34208445 F Nandi
86 EDDAH SAINEPU SAYIANKA 33529131 F Kajiado
87 EDDY OMONDI ORERO 27231615 M Homa Bay
88 ELECTINE CONGO NABWIRE 30335241 F Busia
89 ELIJAH MAKONGORO MAGAIWA 35392810 M Migori
90 ELIUD BARASA 21670746 M Bungoma
91 Elizabeth Adhiambo Ojera 32014564 F Siaya
92 ELIZABETH ATIENO OLOO 27227769 F Migori
93 ELIZABETH CHEBICHI CHIRCHIR 25423422 F Uasin Gishu
94 ELIZABETH ZIADA HAMISI 35199926 F Lamu
95 EMELDAH MAROA RIOBA 34874656 F Migori
96 Emily Scollah Lekwancha 34445467 F Samburu
97 emilyn samba mwakibua 32961462 F Taita-Taveta
98 EMMACULATE JELIMO 34181046 F Nandi
99 EMMANUEL ERICK MAKONO 35476633 M Kwale
100 ERASTUS ABONYO NGADO 34871831 M Siaya
101 Esther Mutui 28003428 F Kitui
102 Esther Bosibori Nyakundi 33250684 F Kisii
103 ESTHER MATI GACHAU 28871402 F Kajiado
104 Esther Njeri Gacheru 22295676 F Kiambu
105 ESTHER WAMAITHA WANJIKU 30792983 F Nyandarua
106 Evaline Chemutai Maritim 23913231 F Nakuru
107 EVE CHEBICHII KOECH 26448108 F Elgeyo Marakwet
108 Everlyne Jepkosgei Kimase 33745722 F Nandi
109 EVERLYNE NAKHUMICHA EMOJONG 34621270 F Busia
110 FAIMA QABALE LAMMA 34811694 F Marsabit
111 Faith Lochekei 34962742 F Samburu
112 faith chelimo lokitau 4100046 F West Pokot
113 FAITH JELAGAT KOMEN 34690601 F Baringo
114 Faiza Abubakar Jeylan 32629871 F Kilifi
115 FARDOWSA HASSAN RONE 33885419 F Garissa
116 FARIDA BAKARI SALIMU 835448 F Kwale
117 fathi sheikh ibrahim 30350470 F Garissa
118 FATUMA AHMED DIGALE 2971663 F Garissa
119 FATUMA AHMED MOHAMED 27104600 F Isiolo
120 FATUMA MOHAMED DUBOW 029111199 F Wajir
121 FATUMA YUSSUF NOOR 7111993 F Wajir
122 FELISTER MWELU MUNYIVA 31727311 F Machakos
123 FESTUS KIBET MAIYO 33188382 M Elgeyo Marakwet
124 Francis kimanoi kiplagat 28695267 M Vihiga
125 Francisca Mwende Kavili 35478611 F Makueni
126 frantina jepkemoi langat 29458752 F Nandi
127 Gaichu Mwiti Julius 27795785 M Tharaka-Nithi
128 Geofrey Abuto Onditi 31162216 M Kisumu
129 gideon kipkore kibor 28465456 M Elgeyo Marakwet
130 GIDEON KIPROTICH KOECH 31253313 M Uasin Gishu
131 GIKUNDA VICKY KAWIRA 33561572 F Kiambu
132 gladys muthoki kingola 33399322 F Mombasa
133 Gladys Mwaka Mwakibola 20177912 F Taita-Taveta
134 Gloria Nadebu Oduli 27739015 F Kajiado
135 GODWIN KIRUI KIPKOECH 23677880 M Kericho
136 GRACE NJOKI MAINA 32406819 F Nyandarua
137 grace wachera maina 29437219 F Muranga
138 GRACENANCY MUTHONI KIRUNDI 27864492 F Muranga
139 gretty geha ajanga 35025569 F Taita-Taveta
140 GUMBA IDA AUMA 32809043 F Kisumu
141 HAKIMA ADOW ABDISALAN 34157464 F Mandera
142 halima ali abdow 976295 F Wajir
143 HALIMA ALI MADI 04107139 F Kilifi
144 HALIMA YUSUF ABDI 986889 F Tana River
145 HANNAH NJOKI KARUOYA 852885 F Kiambu
146 HASSAN HATIBU SALIMU 018130861 M Kwale
147 HASSAN ISSACK WARIO 30507893 M Marsabit
148 HASSAN MOHAMED MAALIM 04000544 M Wajir
149 HASSAN SAIDI kumanda 31080497 M Kilifi
150 Helgah Norah Wamocha 25046647 F Mombasa
151 Hemstone Amulele Shazima 31601011 M Vihiga
152 HILDERLITH D ALUOCH 28538852 F Kisumu
153 Hophni Kipkemboi Keter 33537521 M Nandi
154 hussein mohamed noor 34724649 F Isiolo
155 IBRAHIM MOHAMUD IBRAHIM 02569160 M Mandera
156 IFRAH KEROW ALIO 344680750 F Isiolo
157 IKAALE NAPEYOK IRINE 319707092 F Turkana
158 IRENE ACHIENG OCHIENG 30943744 F Kisumu
159 Irene Akiru Lobei 33733930 F Samburu
160 IRENE CHEROP KAPTIPIN 04108148 F West Pokot
161 irene karisa mangi 26353134 F Kilifi
162 ISABELLA NAITIBIK LEKIRAPITI 03201271 F Samburu
163 ISMAHAN MOHAMUD IBRAHIM 723404035 F Isiolo
164 ismail ahmed hassan 32411799 M Wajir
165 ISSA FARAH ABDULLAHI 33304349 M Wajir
166 ISSACK ABDI YUSSUF 04004076 M Wajir
167 JACINTA NANGOROT EKUWOM 4457817 F Turkana
168 jamal abdi hussein 34922821 M Garissa
169 JAMES THUKU WAMBUGU 35759571 M Nakuru
170 JANE NJAMBI KANYI 30042679 F Nyeri
171 JECINTAH WAMBUI NDUNGU 27524214 F Laikipia
172 JEFF ODHIAMBO ONYANGO 33237162 M Kisumu
173 JEREMIAH EPAT EMURIA 29598913 M Turkana
174 JOAN JELIMO KURUI 27781035 F Elgeyo Marakwet
175 JOAN KEMEI JEROP 32169416 F Uasin Gishu
176 JOEL SANG NDIEMA 30436343 M Trans Nzoia
177 john kariuki njenga 289731 M Laikipia
178 john mwaigho fumbu 032662 M Mombasa
179 JOHN NDERITU WAMBUI 697066 M Laikipia
180 JONES SAIDIMU LENGUSURANGA 253225 M Baringo
181 Joseph Ldumela Lesuyai 30054712 M Samburu
182 Josephat Makori Maonga 26504795 M Nyamira
183 JOSEPHAT MATIKO WANGWI 761373 M Migori
184 Josiah Timothy Sanga 34535228 M Lamu
185 Josphat Mwita Chacha 30594204 M Migori
186 JOY GACHERI MUTUGI 34197605 F Tharaka-Nithi
187 JOY KAWIRA MUCHIRI 31283240 F Meru
188 Joyce Mumbua Musyima 30282651 F Kitui
189 JOYCE WAMBUI NJENGA 30721263 F Kiambu
190 JUDDITH CHEBET SIGEI 864948 F Kericho
191 JUDITH CHERONO NGENO 33542893 F Kericho
192 JUDITH KWAMBOKA MAKORI 3552437 M Kisii
193 JULIET MAMMY JUMA 014873 F Mombasa
194 JUMA GOSO SAID 35783055 M Tana River
195 JUMA HASSANI KIMETE 33723728 M Kwale
196 justin mutugi thaara 32570397 M Embu
197 KANOTI ROSELEAH IGOKI 25712860 F Embu
198 KAREN PRETTY KINYA 31494582 F Meru
199 KELVIN M NJOKA 35169107 M Tharaka-Nithi
200 kennedy kasyoki nicholus 33055785 M Kitui
201 KEZIAH WANGARI WAMBUGU 27739634 F Nyandarua
202 khadija mnyazi mwabari 415394 F Kilifi
203 KIBUGA SILVESTERS BARAZA 784640 M Vihiga
204 Kibui Ngeywo Wesly 3831757 M Trans Nzoia
205 KIMEMIA JAMES NJIHIA 31168476 M Muranga
206 Kipkoech Korir 30006468 M Bomet
207 KIPROTICH KIRUI WESLEY 33956360 M Bomet
208 KIPSANG HENRY OMARI 31431060 M Baringo
209 Korir Kipchirchir Kelvin 35079993 M Elgeyo Marakwet
210 KORIR V KIPROTICH 33385203 M Kericho
211 KOROS JULIUS KIPSANG 26651817 M Narok
212 KUSELE PAUL LENKAI 34704482 M Baringo
213 LABAN KARUGA NJUGUNA 603793 M Nyandarua
214 LABAN KIBIWOT RUTTO 834163 M Baringo
215 LABAN KIPCHUMBA CHOGE 35672964 M West Pokot
216 LAVENDER ATIENO ONYANGO 32667045 F Migori
217 LAWRENCE MWAKIO MGHAMBI 20315713 M Taita-Taveta
218 LEAH CHELANGAT MOIBEN 044130854 F Bungoma
219 LEILA SENEYIA NAIMODU 2417523927 F Narok
220 Lenis Wanja Muruja 27022904 F Tharaka-Nithi
221 LEWIS CHARLES MWAVITA 02500269 M Mombasa
222 LIATUMA KAGEHA MERCY 037110925 F Trans Nzoia
223 LILIAN AWUOR OMONDI 32797529 F Siaya
224 Lilian Harusi Ngumbao 20796864 F Kilifi
225 LILIAN NGIPUO EKUWOM 998679 F Turkana
226 LINDAH CHEPKORIR CHERUIYOT 34381941 F Nakuru
227 LINET NAMBUYA NDIWA 27785981 F Busia
228 Lobar Emuria Deborah 2116539 F Samburu
229 lolimo l leonard 32024777 M Turkana
230 lomwai joshua poriot 27288303 M West Pokot
231 LONYANG CHEPTOO CAROLYNE 3267300 F West Pokot
232 LYDIA KAGWIRA NDATHO 31121077 F Tharaka-Nithi
233 Madina Adi Gewana 946137 F Marsabit
234 Maimuna Mohamed Bonjole 084649 F Isiolo
235 MAISWA NASINOI CYNTHIA 34219851 F Baringo
236 MAKENI NAROCHO LUCKY LAVINIA 29721193 F Busia
237 marion chepkemboi tanui 33437075 F Trans Nzoia
238 MARY ACHIENG ONGANA 27870209 F Kisumu
239 MARY EkAI LOMENEN 31619127 F Turkana
240 MARY GATI PIUS 33044694 F Migori
241 MARY MAROA TATU 3826243 F Migori
242 MARY SEMPEIYAN SAITOTI 35453792 F Narok
243 MATOKERE DORCA NYANOKWI 33966742 F Migori
244 MAURINE ADHIAMBO OPIYO 34440070 F Nyamira
245 Maxmillan Ahono Musa 29044054 F Kakamega
246 Maxwell magara ngari 27085103 M Kirinyaga
247 MERCY CHEPTOO 4100191 F West Pokot
248 mercy cherono masit 32512573 F Nakuru
249 MERCY MUTHONI MURIUKI 22522933 F Embu
250 MERCYLINE AUMA ODERO 255727 F Nairobi
251 MESALIMU BAKARI MWATENGEZA 115926 M Mombasa
252 MESHACK KIPKURUI BUNGEI 34206670 M Uasin Gishu
253 Michael KIPROTICH RONOH 29294069 M Narok
254 MICHAEL OTOTO NYANGENA 28788019 M Kisii
255 michael towua sipitek 36419434 M Kajiado
256 Millicent Atieno Otieno 32532211 F Nairobi
257 Milly Kadzo Tsuwi 32480275 F Mombasa
258 MKAISAKA GRACE MTAWE 31666530 F Taita-Taveta
259 MOHAMED ABDI MAALIM 24309953 M Garissa
260 MOHAMED ABDI SALAT 32386592 M Mandera
261 MOHAMED ABDIRAHMAN SHEIKH 726449478 M Tana River
262 MOHAMED KUNO ROBA 442216 M Isiolo
263 Monica Masinoi Sululia 35574008 F Baringo
264 MOSES BARASA WAFULA 26039868 M Bungoma
265 MOSES LOKIDA PARSITAU 28568224 M Kajiado
266 MOSES MUKHWANA SITUMA 33162604 M Trans Nzoia
267 Moses Ojwang Odwory 34250942 M Busia
268 Mourine Achieng Awuonda 28887737 F Kisumu
269 MUIA KIOKO 26895698 M Makueni
270 MUKTAR AHMED IBRAHIM 3171636 M Mandera
271 MUMINA GURATI AHMED 33117203 F Tana River
272 MUSA ABDI ADAN 33255980 M Wajir
273 MUTHONI ROSE MUTETHIA 28265105 F Meru
274 Mwajuma Ali Shaban 267464 F Nairobi
275 MWAJUMBE ABDALLA NGANZI 34336941 F Kwale
276 Mwamayugo Salim Chikunze 28999462 M Kwale
277 MWANAMISI NADZUA FUNDA 000233 F Kwale
278 NAAH DIRIYE MOHAMUD 25937358 F Garissa
279 NAIMA MOHAMED IBRAHIM 35296700 F Mandera
280 NAIMA SHEIKH ALI 242229 F Mandera
281 Nancy njoki mburu 34915730 F Kiambu
282 NANCY NJOKI WAITHIRA 33214919 F Nyandarua
283 NANCY VIDZO NYULE 32524734 F Kilifi
284 NANCY WANGUI NDUNGU 32637349 F Laikipia
285 Naomi Achieng Ochieng 620049413 F Kisumu
286 NAOMI CHEROP KARORWA 29079087 F West Pokot
287 Naomi M N 35243585 F Tharaka-Nithi
288 NAOMY CHEBET MUTAI 30144822 F Narok
289 Naomy Jelagat Letting 25542227 F Uasin Gishu
290 NASKY MARY WANGARI 278522 F Laikipia
291 Nasri Ismail Mohamud 928458 F Garissa
292 NATHAN KIPRONO KIROP 35019466 M Elgeyo Marakwet
293 NATWEM LODUNG’A SAMSON 31927594 M Turkana
294 NELLY GAKII MUGAMBI 34180823 F Tharaka-Nithi
295 NEMA GEDI DAHIR 235791 F Garissa
296 NICHOLAS KIOKO MAVATA 27057181 M Machakos
297 nicholas kiprotich kipkemoi 34438330 M Trans Nzoia
298 NICODEMUS OBIYE MOSIOMA 29846437 M Nakuru
299 Nima Ahmed Abdi 11400227 F Wajir
300 NIMA MAALIM IBRAHIM 578707 F Tana River
301 NKUMBUKU JULIUS GITONGA 04685002 M Meru
302 NORAH WANJA SAMUEL 27902720 F Tharaka-Nithi
303 nuswaiba mwanamzee abdalla 8525769 F Lamu
304 OBONYO ODIWUOR PETER 30370651 M Homa Bay
305 ODIRA FREDRICK OCHIENG 34059338 M Homa Bay
306 Omar Hassan Soba 33096225 M Tana River
307 owuor beatrice achieng 370183 F Homa Bay
308 patricia KAARI M 208391 F Isiolo
309 PATRICIA MUENI MALUNDU 14456466 M Kitui
310 Patrick Wachira Gitari 30247807 M Kirinyaga
311 pauia Lydia seitalo 34153903 F Marsabit
312 paul njoroge njeri 31599608 M Muranga
313 paul okoba khatika 29972898 M Vihiga
314 PAULINE AKOTH NGALA 872600 F Homa Bay
315 pauline muthoni mwangi 32909396 F Laikipia
316 Penina Wanjiru Muchira 30475577 F Kirinyaga
317 PERPETUA NKATHA KIRIMI 34533681 F Kiambu
318 PETER DOKATA GUYO 35240739 M Marsabit
319 PHOEBE JEMUTAI 707357 F Bungoma
320 PHYLIS JEPKOECH YANO 27317925 F Elgeyo Marakwet
321 QUREISHA IBRAHIM ALIOW 32226502 F Mandera
322 RACHEAL KASYOKA KAMUNZYU 28656667 F Kitui
323 RAHMA ALIO ABDI 34177132 F Mandera
324 Rakmo Parito Lenairoshi 31862338 M Samburu
325 REBECCA WAMBUI GITHAIGA 22705649 F Nyeri
326 REGINA NAMUNYAK N 226883 F Narok
327 RISPA BOSIBORI ANYONA 31847032 F Trans Nzoia
328 RISPAH MORAA MAIRURA 797612 F Nairobi
329 Rogers Kiplimo 33243243 M Nandi
330 ROSE MUTHONI WARUGURU 03000688 F Nakuru
331 ROSE NYAWIRA MUNGATU 321667 F Laikipia
332 ROSE WANGARI KARANI 32576125 F Lamu
333 Rose Wangui Mwangi 32623211 F Kirinyaga
334 ROSELINE AKINYI OCHIENG 20716217 F Nairobi
335 ROTICH CHEPKORIR EUCABETH 33535914 F Narok
336 ROZELLA NANCY KIMTAI 35099280 F Bungoma
337 RUKIA FARDOSA YUNIS 35149200 F Tana River
338 RUTH JEPCHUMBA xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx 35858647 F Elgeyo Marakwet
339 RUTH KERUBO ONYANDO 23922005 F Kisii
340 ruth nafula murambi 957982 F Kakamega
341 SAHARA MOHAMUD GURHAN 35798378 F Garissa
342 Saida Ibrahim Omar 30820101 F Mandera
343 SALI ESTHER CHACHOLE 35438108 F Marsabit
344 SALIM MAHABUB ABDU 33679458 M Kwale
345 Salome Chepchumba Maru 31969368 F Bungoma
346 Salome Salo Huka 480528 F Marsabit
347 SARA ROBI MATARO 35077380 F Migori
348 Sarah Kauria Joseph 33245946 F Meru
349 SCHOLARSTICA NKIROTE MIRITI 29438188 F Isiolo
350 SELLY KAPKARICH SIMOTWO 856261 F Bungoma
351 SETIA SCHOLAR IKOKIA 32876175 F Narok
352 SHAIMAA MOHAMED KHALID 921911 F Lamu
353 SHARMAKE BISHAR FARHIA 838103 F Wajir
354 SHARON JEPCHIRCHIR 34548030 F Uasin Gishu
355 sharon chepngeno sharon 33411080 F Bomet
356 SHARON NASINTOI LEMPAINE 34109382 F Baringo
357 sheika yunus ahmed 34960607 F Nairobi
358 SHEILLAH AMAGOVE NZALULA 34165383 F Vihiga
359 SHEILLAH IMALI KIPRUTO 32354988 F Vihiga
360 siat hussein ibrahim 27316332 M Laikipia
361 SILAS HEGUDHA EMMANUEL 33138677 M Kilifi
362 SILAS KIPCHUMBA TALAM 32948879 M Uasin Gishu
363 SIMON TARAYIA NKOIBONI 34796471 M Narok
364 Siparo Veronica Njerina 34389245 F Laikipia
365 SOFIA HAMISI YUSUF 251428 F Mombasa
366 SORAYA SWEETY JAMAL 30185980 F Kwale
367 STELLAH KANGOGO TOROITICH 412078 F Elgeyo Marakwet
368 STEPHEN AGOLA OTIENO 31171370 M Kisumu
369 stephen kisang samikwa 23319318 M West Pokot
370 SUDI KIBIBI TAUSI 29834993 F Lamu
371 SUMAYA ADAN 352393080 F Mombasa
372 SURURU A NASUMPAT 33659618 F Narok
373 Susan Maishupei Koileken 22445844 F Kajiado
374 TABITHA J JEROP 35391615 F Uasin Gishu
375 TABITHA WANJA NYAGA 22480183 F Machakos
376 TINA WANGARI GATHURU 30867566 F Kiambu
377 Too irene chebet 33970769 F Nandi
378 Tumme veronica guyo 34734761 F Marsabit
379 tuyiesi mercy shinah 35099468 F Kajiado
380 Valentine Wanjiku Muigai 269903996 F Nairobi
381 velmah Muhonja Mutonya 34103006 F Vihiga
382 VENANT NGALI MWASARU 24546119 M Taita-Taveta
383 Victor Mbogo Rutere 28060319 M Embu
384 VICTOR MWITA CHACHA 34974796 M Nakuru
385 VINCENT KIBET CHERUIYOT 33154357 M Kericho
386 VIOLAH CHEPCHIRCHIR 35737552 F Nandi
387 VIOLAH CHEPKIRUI SANGUTEI 27445012 F Uasin Gishu
388 VITALICE EROT TIYA 29769493 M Turkana
389 WAFULA NYONGESA FRED 29902776 M Bungoma
390 WILBERT ODAA BENGO 34008776 M Nairobi
391 Willy Kibor 34117462 M Baringo
392 winnie tata musa 28364808 F Turkana
393 winny langat cherotich 32295513 F Narok
394 wycliffe nyabao ogega 32902057 M Kakamega
395 YUNIS HUSSEIN NUR 34221081 M Mandera
396 yusaphia nyaboke nyamache 374491 F Nyamira
397 YUSUF BAJILA JUMA 03501906 M Tana River
398 Zahra Dido Bocha 35895424 F Tana River
399 Zainab Shimoka Juma 22338853 M Kakamega
400 Ziporah Aketch Auma 26289009 F Kisumu

KMTC 2017/2018 Intake: KMTC September 2017/2018 Regular Intake Admission-Government Sponsored

The Kenya Medical Training College invites applications from qualified candidates for admission into Medical Courses for the academic year 2017/2018 as PRE-SERVICE REGULAR CATEGORY in her campuses situated in different parts of the country(KMTC 2017/2018 Intake). The successful PRE-SERVICE REGULAR students will join the college in September 2017. Below are the list of kmtc admission requirements and courses available

Applications will be made ONLINE with an application fee of Ksh. 2022 payable via MPESA paybill No. 964150 following the procedure outlined in the KMTC website (www.kmtc.ac.ke).

Applications are opened between Tuesday 11 th April 2017 to Sunday May 14 th 2017.

In case you need any assistance with the online application process please call any of the following numbers 0736993813, 0736212060, 0723000429, 0723004569, 0723004516. You can also get help on the online application process from the nearest KMTC campus.

Course duration: Certificate Courses: 2 Years except for Community Health Nursing which takes 2 1/2 years
Course duration: Diploma Courses: 3 Years except for Community Health Nursing which takes 3 1/2 years

1 Diploma in Clinical Medicine

Requirements:
C in English or Kiswahili, and C in Biology/Biological Science, and C in Chemistry/Physical Science
C- in any one of the following: Mathematics, Physics/Physical Sciences

2. Diploma in Community Oral Health

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in any two of the following: Physics/Physical Science, Chemistry, Mathematics

3. Diploma in Nutrition & Dietetics

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
D+ in Chemistry/Physical Sciences
D+ in any one of the following: Home Science, Agriculture, Mathematics, Physics, General Science

4. Diploma in Health Records and Information Technology

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Mathematics
C- in Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in any one of the following: Physics/Physical Science, Chemistry, computer studies

5. Diploma in Community Health Nursing

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences.
C- in any one of the following: Chemistry or Physics/Physical Science or Mathematics

6. Diploma in Registered Nursing, Mental Health & Psychiatry

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in any one of the following: Chemistry or Physics/Physical Science or Mathematics

7. Diploma in Medical Imaging Sciences

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Physics/Physical Science and Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in any one of the following: – Mathematics or Chemistry

8 Diploma in Medical Laboratory Sciences

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences and Chemistry/Physical Sciences
C in any one of the following: – Physics/Physical Sciences, Mathematics

9 Diploma in Occupational Therapy

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in any two of the following: – Physics, Physical Science, Chemistry,Mathematics, Agriculture, Home Science

10. Diploma in Optometry

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Mathematics.
C- in the following: – Biology/ Biological Sciences, Physics/Physical Sciences

11. Diploma in Orthopaedic Technology

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology and Physics/Physical Science or Mathematics
C- in any one of the following: – Physics/Physical Science, Mathematics, Chemistry, Woodwork, Metal Work, Technical Drawing.

12 Diploma in Pharmacy

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Chemistry or Physical Science and Biology or Biological Science
C in any one of the following: – Physics or Mathematics

13. Diploma in Physiotherapy

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology and Mathematics or Physics/Physical Science
C- in any one of the following: -Chemistry , Physics/ Physical Science or Mathematics

14. Diploma in Medical Engineering

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Mathematics and Physics/Physical Sciences
C- in any one of the following: – Biology/Biological Sciences, Chemistry, Electricity, Metal Work, Technical Drawing

15. Diploma in Environmental Health Sciences

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in Mathematics and any one of the following: Physics/Physical Science, Chemistry

16. Diploma in Dental Technology

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Physics/Physical Science or Chemistry
C- Biology/Biological Sciences and in any one of the following: Metal Work, Physics, Physical Science, Chemistry, Mathematics

17 Diploma in Orthopedic & Trauma Medicine

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili, C in Biology/Biological Sciences and Mathematics or Physics/Physical Sciences
C- in any one of the following: Physics/Physical Science, Chemistry, Mathematics, Home Science, Agriculture.

18 .Diploma in Health Promotion

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in any one of the following: Mathematics, Physics/Physical Science, Chemistry

19. Diploma in Medical Social Work

Requirements:

C in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
C- in any two of the following: Chemistry or Physics/Physical Science or Mathematics, Home Science, Agriculture

20. Certificate in Health Records and Information Technology

Requirements:

C- in English or Kiswahili and D+ in Biology/ Biological Sciences
D+ in any one of the following: Mathematics, Physics, Physical Science, Chemistry, General Science, Computer Studies , Agriculture ,Home Science

21. Certificate in Community Health Nursing

Requirements:

C- in English or Kiswahili and Biology/Biological Sciences
D+ in any one of the following: – Chemistry or Physics/Physical Science or Mathematics

22. Certificate in Nutrition & Dietetics

Requirements:

C- in English or Kiswahili and Biology /Biological Sciences
D+ in Chemistry / Physical Science
D+ in any one of the following: Home Science, Physics, Agriculture, Mathematics, General Science

23. Certificate in Medical Engineering

Requirements:

• C- In English or Kiswahili, D in Mathematics and D in Physics/Physical Sciences. or Chemistry
D in any one of the following: – Chemistry, Biology, Biological Science, Electricity, Metal Work, Technical Drawing.

24 Certificate in Orthopaedic Plaster Technology

Requirements:

• C- In English or Kiswahili, and C- in Biology/ Biological Sciences
• D+ in Mathematics and in any one of the following:, Physics/Physical Science, Chemistry, Woodwork, Metal work, Technical Drawing, Home Science,Agriculture

25. Certificate in Environmental Health Sciences

Requirements:

C- in English or Kiswahil
C- in Biology/Biological Sciences and D in Mathematics
D in any two of the following: Home Science, Physics, Chemistry, Agriculture, Building Construction, Technical Drawing, Electricity and Wood Work

PETER K. TUM, OGW
DIRECTOR/CEO

School of Nursing Ahmadu Bello University Teaching Hospital Zaria 2017/2018 Application

School of Nursing Ahmadu Bello University Teaching Hospital Zaria

Application are hereby invited from interested and suitably qualified candidates for admission into the following School’s/Training Programmes in School of Nursing Ahmadu Bello University Teaching Hospital Zaria for 2017/2018 academic session:

This School offers a three (3) year basic general nursing training to suitable candidates of not less than 171/2 years and not more than 26 years of age. Those wishing to apply must have the following:
The acceptable combination of results shall be as follows:

i. WAEC/WAEC or NECO/NECO
ii. WAEC: NECO
a. Five credit passes in English language. Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry &. Biology at not more than two sittings.

Entrance Examination and Interview

* Candidates who satisfy the basic entry requirements shall be required to sit for an entrance examination in June, 2017 and selection interview thereafter.
* Only candidates short-listed will appear for the selection interview.
* The Selection process will include essay writing followed by oral interview.
* Candidates selected for admission shall be required to pass a medical examination for fitness,
Note: Only candidates who satisfied O’level requirement will be invited for entrance examination.

Accommodation
This course is residential. Successful candidates MUST live tn the Nurses’ hostel; payment of accommodation fee shall be made instalmentally.

Closing Date: 31st May, 2017
Exam Date: June 2017

Application Fee: N6,200

Method of Application
Step 1 – Visit: www.apply.abuth.org.ng

* Click “Purchase Access Code”
* Fill the Application’s detail, Full Name, Valid Email address, Phone Number, Program and Course (make sure you type the information correctly)
* Click Pay with Remita button to general Remita Retrieval Reference (RRR)
* Print the transaction reference page issued by Remita
* Visit any branch of any Commercial Bank and present your payment reference number (RRR) for the payment.
* Request for the payment evidence from the bank.
* You can also pay with VISA, Master Card, Verve, Remita, Internet Banking, or Mobile wallets).

Step 2 – after payment go to www.apply.abuth.org.ng
* Click “Sign up/Login” to proceed with the application
* Fill the New Applicant form make sure you use the same information as in the trasaction reference form: Email Address, Phone Number, Password, and your Remita Retrieval Reference (RRR) Code.
* Click “Sign Up” to Complete the Application Form.
* Ensure you print the exam slip and come with it on the exam day.

School of Nursing Ado Ekiti Admission Form 2017/2018

This is to inform the general public that admission forms into the School of Nursing EKSUTH, ADO-EKITI for 2017/2018 Academic session are now available for sale On-line.

ENTRY REQUIREMENT

Candidate must possess a minimum of Five Credits in WASC/SSCE/NECO to include English Language, Mathematics, Biology, Chemistry and Physics at not more than two sittings and candidate must attain the age of 17 years in 2017
PAYMENT METHOD

Pay the sum of N10,550.00 (Ten thousand, five hundred and fifty naira) only into
Bank: United Bank for Africa (UBA)
Account No.: 1003306243
Account Name: School of Nursing, Ado Ekiti.
Make a photocopy of the payment teller and print out
Submit the original copy of the payment teller to the Bursar at the School of Nursing, EKSUTH, Ado-Ekiti
Obtain the School Receipt and Admission Registration Scratch Card in the school

METHOD OF APPLICATION

Visit the school e-portal at www.sonadeksuth.edu.ng
Click on Apply Now button
Input your PIN
Click on Fill Application button to access the form
Fill in your data and relevant details required
Scan and upload your recent passport photograph (Max. size 30kb)
Click on Submit button.
Print a copy of acknowledgement and Exam Notification slip (after successful completion of online application) which you will bring to the exam center/venue

CLOSING DATE

25TH AUGUST, 2017

DATE OF EXAMINATION

26th August, 2016 by 11:00 a.m

EXAMINATION VENUE

At centers as designated online
NOTE

NO PAYMENT TO ANY INDIVIDUAL OR AGENT OR PERSONAL BANK ACCOUNT
CARDS OBTAINED IN THE SCHOOL WILL BE USED THROUGHOUT THE ADMISSION PROCESS TO CHECK BOTH THE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION AND INTERVIEW RESULTS
LOSS OF SCRATCH CARD WILL ATTRACT EXTRA COST FOR REPLACEMENT

Signed
MRS. BAMIGBOYE T.O
Principal
For CMD

School of Nursing Eleyele Ibadan 2017/2018 Admission Form

Advertisement for Admission into Basic General Nursing and Post Basic Midwifery Programmes of Oyo State College of Nursing and Midwifery, Eleyele, Ibadan for 2017/2018 Academic Session

Applications are hereby invited from suitably qualified candidates for admission into the following programmes of Oyo State College of Nursing and Midwifery, Eleyele, Ibadan.

1. Basic General Nursing
2. Post-Basic Midwifery

This is a three year programme commencing in October, 2017, after which candidates will be presented for both the College and the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria (NMCN) Final Qualifying Examinations to qualify as General Nurses and be eligible for registration with NMCN as Registered Nurses (RN).

Requirements

Applicant must:

i. Possess WAEC/SSCE/GCE or NECO/SSCE/GCE with at least five (5) credits (at not more than two (2) sittings) in English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology;

ii.Only individuals with required credit passes at not more than two (2) sittings from the same examination body may apply. He or she should be at least Seventeen (17) years old on admission.

Post Basic Midwifery:

This is an eighteen (18) month programme commencing in September, 2017

Requirements

Applicant must:

i.Possess WAEC/SSCE/GCE or NECO/SSCE/GCE with at least five (5) credits (at not more than two (2) sittings) in English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology;

ii.Be a Registered Nurse (RN) with the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria. Applicants awaiting the result of Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria Examination may also apply

Method of Application

i.Any interested candidate should pay the sum Ten Thousand Naira (N10,000:00) only to the College Account Number: 0694966574 at any branch of Access Bank PLC. Similarly, a sum of Two Hundred Naira (N200:00) only into Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria, Oyo State Chapter Account Number: 2019704292 at any First Bank Nigeria Plc;

ii.with the Bank Tellers obtained from the Bank, the applicant will come to the College and collect the scratch card to fill the online admission form on www.oyostatecollegeofnursingandmidwifery.com

iii.candidates should print the completed copy and other details from the website on successful completion of the online admission application; and

iv.candidate should come along with his/her photocard on the day of examination

Closing Date:

Online application commences on Monday, 3rd April, 2017 must be completed on or before 3nd June, 2017.

Date of Entrance Examination: Saturday, 10th June, 2017
Venue: Oyo State College of Nursing and Midwifery, Eleyele, Ibadan
Time: 8.00 am prompt
Interview Date: Monday 26th – Friday, 30th June, 2017
Resumption Date:

– Post Basic Midwifery Programme: Monday, 4th September, 2017

-Basic General Nursing Programme: Monday, 2nd October, 2017

For further enquiries, please contact the Office of the Registrar or Heads of Department of Nursing and Midwifery respectively.

Contact Numbers: 08034662462 08063258781 08073864856

Note: No payment to any Individual/Agent or Personal Bank Account. Pay directly to the College Account Number: 0694966574 and obtain the scratch card from the Bursary Department of the College to complete your application ONLINE

Signed:

‘Biodun Oni

Ag. Registrar

NMC CBT Sample Questions and CBT Exam Practice 4

1. The nurse is giving the client with a left cast crutch walking instructions using the three point gait. The client is
allowed touchdown of the affected leg. The nurse tells the client to advance the:
A. Left leg and right crutch then right leg and left crutch
B. Crutches and then both legs simultaneously
C. Crutches and the right leg then advance the left leg
D. Crutches and the left leg then advance the right leg

2. A patient was diagnosed to have Chron’s disease. What would the patient be manifesting?
A. Blood and mucous in the faeces C. Loss of appetite
B. Fatigue D. Urgent bowel

3. What is Disclosure according to NHS?
A. It is asking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.
4. All but one are signs of anaphylaxis:
A. itchy skin or a raised, red skin rash C. hypertension and tachycardia
B. swollen eyes, lips, hands and feet D. abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting

5. What is comprehensive nursing assessment?
A. It provides the foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater control over their lives and enhance their health status.
B. An in-depth assessment of the patient’s health status, physical examination, risk factors, psychological and social aspects of the patient’s health that usually takes place on admission or transfer to a hospital or healthcare agency.
C. An assessment of a specific condition, problem, identified risks or assessment of care; for example, continence assessment, nutritional assessment, neurological assessment following a head injury, assessment for day care, outpatient consultation for a specific condition.
D. It is a continuous assessment of the patient’s health status accompanied by monitoring and observation of specific problems identified.

6. Define standard precaution:
A. The precautions that are taken with all blood and ‘high-risk’ body fluids.
B. The actions that should be taken in every care situation to protect patients and others from infection,
regardless of what is known of the patient’s status with respect to infection.

C. It is meant to reduce the risk of transmission of bloodbourne and other pathogens from both recognized and
unrecognized sources.
D. The practice of avoiding contact with bodily fluids, by means of wearing of nonporous articles such as gloves, goggles, and face shields.

7. What is the purpose of clamping a chest tube?
A. To prevent further lung collapse and entry of air
B. To minimize the feeling of pain on drain insertion
C. To aid the drain into the correct position.
D. To minimize risk of infection

8. What is not true about compartment syndrome?
A. is a painful and potentially serious condition caused by bleeding or swelling within an enclosed bundle of
muscles
B. it occurs when pressure within a compartment increases and affects the function of the muscle and tissues
C. is defined by a critical pressure increase within a confined compartmental space, causing a decline in the
perfusion pressure to the compartment tissue
D. Compartment syndrome most commonly occurs in compartments in the leg or thigh.

9. What is the best site of buttock injections?
A. Ventrogluteal site B. Dorsogluteal site C. Rectus Femoris D. Greater trochanter area
10. What are the steps for the proper urine collection?
A. Clean meatus with soap and water
B. Catch midstream
C. Dispatch sample to laboratory immediately (within 6 hours)
D. Ask the patient to void her remaining urine into the toilet or bedpan.
A. A, B, & C B. B, C, & D C. A, B, & D D. A, C, & D

11. The doctor is about to insert an IV cannula when he was called to assist in an emergency. The nurse is not experienced in peripheral cannulation. What should the nurse do?
A. Inform the supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.
B. Apply the canula since you have seen it done before.
C. Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.
D. Have a friend help you apply it.

12. What is the purpose of NPO after surgery?
A. To prevent a blood clot C. To facilitate respiration
B. To prevent aspiration D. To prevent embolism

13. Nurses are not using a hoist to transfer patient. They said it was not well maintained. What would you do?
A. make a written report
B. complain verbally
C. take a picture for evidence
D. Do nothing

14. What is not included in the care package in a nursing home?
A. Laundry B. Food C. Nursing Care D. Social Activities

15. What is abduction?
A. any motion of the limbs or other body parts that pulls away from the midline of the body
B. the bending of a joint so as to bring together the parts it connects
C. the straightening of a joint
D. the movement of a body part toward the body’s midline

16. What is compassion?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.

17. What is an intermediate care home?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.

18. Which statement is not correct about the nursing process?
A. An organised, systematic and deliberate approach to nursing with the aim of improving standards in nursing
care.
B. It uses a systematic, holistic, problem solving approach in partnership with the patient and their family.
C. It is a form of documentation.
D. It requires collection of objective data.

19. Why are support stockings used?
A. To help relieve the pain and discomfort C. To prevent new varicose veins from appearing
B. To promote venous flow D. For cosmetic reasons

20. What is the best site to check for oedema?
A. Ankle or foot B. Eyes C. Lungs D. Abdomen

21. All but one describes holistic care:
A. A system of comprehensive or total patient care that considers the physical, emotional, social, economic, and
spiritual needs of the person; his or her response to illness; and the effect of the illness on the ability to meet
self-care needs.
B. It embraces all nursing practice that has enhancement of healing the whole person from birth to death as it’s
goals.
C. An all nursing practice that has healing the person as its goal.
D. It involves understanding the individual as a unitary whole in mutual process with the environment.

22. A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What should not be an intervention to this type of patient?
A. Place the patient in a sitting position / upright during and after eating.
B. Water or clear liquids should be given.
C. Instruct the patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
D. Review the patient’s ability to swallow, and note the extent of facial paralysis.

23. Which is not a sign or symptom of baby born with meconium stain?
A. Baby with a loud cry C. slow heartbeat
B. barrel-shaped chest D. rapid or labored breathing

24. A patient underwent an abdominal surgery and will be unable to meet nutritional needs through oral intake. A patient was placed on enteral feeding. How would you position the patient when feeding is being administered?
A. Sitting upright at 30 to 45° C. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
B. Sitting upright at 60 to 75° D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°

25. A patient is being prepared for a surgery and was placed on NPO. What is the purpose of NPO?
A. Prevention of aspiration pneumonia C. For abdominal procedures
B. To facilitate induction of pre-op meds D. To decrease production of fluids

26. It is a condition in which you wake up during the night because you have to urinate.
A. Polyuria B. Oliguria C. Nocturia D. Dysuria

27. You were administering a pre-operative medication to a patient via IM route. Suddenly, you developed a needle-stick injury. Which of the ff interventions will not be appropriate for you to do?
A. Prevent the wound to bleed
B. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
C. Do not suck the wound
D. Dry the wound and over it with a waterproof plaster or dressing

28. Why is pyrexia not evident in the elderly?
A. Due to lesser body fat C. Due to aged hypothalamus
B. Due to immature T cells D. Due to biologic changes

29. When do we need to document?
A. As soon as possible after an event has happened to provide current up to date information about the care
and condition of the patient or client)
B. Every hour
C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
D. At the end of the shift

30. All should be seen in a good documentation except:
A. legible handwriting
B. Name and signature, position, date and time
C. Abbreviations, jargon, meaningless phrases, irrelevant speculation and offensive subjective statements
D. A correct, consistent, and factual data

31. A patient is scheduled to undergo an Elective Surgery. What is the least thing that should be done?
A. Assess/Obtain the patient’s understanding of, and consent to, the procedure, and a share in the decision making process.
B. Ensure pre-operative fasting, the proposed pain relief method, and expected sequelae are carried out and
discussed.
C. Discuss the risk of operation if it won’t push through.
D. The documentation of details of any discussion in the anaesthetic record.

32. A patient experienced sensation of fluttering in his chest, light headedness, & chest pain. The doctor diagnosed him with atrial fibrillation. What is atrial fibrillation?
A. a rare, rapid and disorganised rhythm of heartbeats that rapidly leads to loss of consciousness and sudden
death if not treated immediately
B. episodes of abnormally fast heart rate at rest
C. the heart beats more slowly than normal and can cause people to collapse
D. a heart condition that causes an irregular and often abnormally fast heart rate

33. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?
A. Re-site the cannula C. Apply warm compress
B. Inform the doctor D. Discontinue infusion

34. Which statement is not true about acute illness?
A. A disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course one.
B. It will eventually resolve without any medical supervision.

C. It is rapidly progressive and in need of urgent care.
D. It is prolonged, do not resolve spontaneously, and is rarely captured completely.

35. Taking a nursing history prior to the physical examination allows a nurse to establish a rapport with the patient and family. Elements of the history include all of the ff except:
A. the client’s health status C. social history
B. the course of the present illness D. Cultural beliefs and practices

36. Which is not a sign or symptom of speed shock?
A. Headache B. A tight feeling in the chest C. Irregular pulse D. Cyanosis

37. What is not included in Palliative Care?
A. Psychological support C. Resuscitation
B. Spiritual support D. Pain management

38. All but one is an indication for pleural tubing:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Abnormal blood clotting screen or low platelet count
C. Malignant pleural effusion.
D. Post-operative, for example thoracotomy, cardiac surgery

39. Which is not considered in an oxygen prescription?
A. It should be prescribed.
B. Regular pulse oximetry monitoring must be available in all clinical environments.
C. Can be given to patients who are not hypoxaemic.
D. It must be signed and dated.
40. What is accountability?
A. It means that individuals are responsible for their actions and maybe asked to justify them.
B. It is intelligent kindness and is central to how people perceive their care.
C. It means all those in caring roles must have the ability to understand an individual’s health and social needs.
D. It enables us to do the right thing for the people we care for.

41. What is primary care?
A. It is the day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
B. It includes a range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote independence.
C. It is a system of integrated care.
D. It is a means of organising work, that is patient allocation.

42. What is Advocacy according to NHS Trust?
A. It is taking action to help people say what they want, secure their rights, represent their interests and obtain the services they need.
B. This is the divulging or provision of access to data.
C. It is the response to the suffering of others that motivates a desire to help.
D. It is a set of rules or a promise that limits access or places restrictions on certain types of information.

43. The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte levels of a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypokalemia
44. You were the nurse on duty and it’s time to take your patient’s vital signs. Upon checking, you noted that the patient was given Digoxin and now has a heart rate of 50 BPM. What will you do with the next dose of Digoxin?
A. Omit then document C. Administer then document
B. Omit then double the next dose; document D. Administer then recheck VS

45. A patient had been suffering from severe diarrheoa and is now showing signs of dehydration. Which of the following is not a classic symptom?
A. passing small amounts of urine frequently C. dark-coloured urine
B. dizziness or light-headedness D. thirst

46. Signs and symptoms of early fluid volume deficit, except.
A. Decreased urine output C. Concentrated urine
B. Decreased pulse rate D. Decreased skin turgor

47. Which is not an indication for lumbar tap?
A. For patients with increased ICP
B. For diagnostic purposes
C. Introduction of spinal anaesthesia for surgery
D. Introduction of contrast medium

48. Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.
A. Lie the patient supine in bed with the head raised 45–50 cm with a backrest
B. Sitting upright at 45 to 60
C. Sitting upright at 60 to 75°
D. Sitting upright at 75 to 90°
49. MRSA means
A. Methilinase – Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
B. Methicillin-Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
C. Methilinase – Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
D. Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

50. Among the following values incorporated in NMC’s 6 C’s, which is not included?
A. Care C. Confidentiality
B. Courage D. Communication

NMC CBT Sample Questions and CBT Exam Practice 3

1. A patient is admitted to the ward with symptoms of acute diarrheoa. What should your initial management be?
A. Assessment, protective isolation, universal precautions.
B. Assessment, source isolation, antibiotic therapy.
C. Assessment, protective isolation, antimotility medication.
D. Assessment, source isolation, universal precautions.

2. What should be included in your initial assessment of your patient’s respiratory status?
A. Review the patient’s notes and charts, to obtain the patient’s history.
B. Review the results of routine investigations.
C. Observe the patient’s breathing for ease and comfort, rate and pattern.
D. Perform a systematic examination and ask the relatives for the patient’s history.

3. What should be included in a prescription for oxygen therapy?
A. You don’t need a prescription for oxygen unless in an emergency.
B. The date it should commence, the doctor’s signature and bleep number.
C. The type of oxygen delivery system, inspired oxygen percentage and duration of the therapy.
D. You only need a prescription if the patient is going to have home oxygen.

4. What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary tract infection?
A. The doctor has requested a midstream urine specimen.
B. The patient has a urinary catheter in situ, and the patient’s wife states that he seems more forgetful than
usual.
C. The patient has spiked a temperature, has a raised white cell count (WCC), has new- onset of confusion
and the urine in his catheter bag is cloudy.
D. The patient has complained of frequency of faecal elimination and hasn’t been drinking enough.

5. You are caring for a patient who was told to be in a “source isolation”. What would you do and why?
A. Isolating a patient so that they don’t catch any infections.
B. Nurse the patient in isolation, ensure that you wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and
adhere to strict hand hygiene, for the purpose of preventing the spread of organisms from that patient to
others.
C. Nursing an individual who is regarded as being particularly vulnerable to infection in such a way as to
minimize the transmission of potential pathogens to that person.
D. Nursing a patient who is carrying an infectious agent that may be a risk to others in such a way as to
minimize the risk of the infection spreading elsewhere in their body.
6. Why should healthcare professionals take extra care when washing and drying an elderly patient’s skin?
A. As the older generation deserve more respect and tender loving care (TLC).
B. As the skin of an elder person has reduced blood supply, is thinner, less elastic and has less natural oil. This
means the skin is less resistant to shearing forces and wound healing can be delayed.
C. All elderly people lose dexterity and struggle to wash effectively so they need support with personal hygiene.
D. As elderly people cannot reach all areas of their body, it is essential to ensure all body areas are washed well
so that the colonization of Gram-positive and negative micro-organisms on the skin is avoided.

7. How can risks be reduced in the healthcare setting?
A. By adopting a culture of openness and transparency and exploring the root causes of patient safety incidents.
B. Healthcare will always involve risks so incidents will always occur; we need to accept this.
C. Healthcare professionals should be encouraged to fill in incident forms; this will create a culture of ‘no
blame’.
D. By setting targets which measure quality.

8. You are told a patient is in ‘source isolation’. What would you do and why?
A. Isolating a patient so that they don’t catch any infections.
B. Nursing an individual who is regarded as being particularly vulnerable to infection in such a way as to
minimize the transmission of potential pathogens to that person.
C. Nurse the patient in isolation, ensure that you wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and
adhere to strict hand hygiene, for the purpose of preventing the spread of organisms from that patient to
others.
D. Nursing a patient who is carrying an infectious agent that may be a risk to others in such a way as to
minimize the risk of the infection spreading elsewhere in their body.

9. A patient has just returned from theatre following surgery on his left arm. He has a PCA infusion connected and from the admission, you remember that they have poor dexterity with his right hand. He is currently pain free. What actions would you take?
A. Educate the patient’s family to push the button when the patient asks for it. Encourage them to tell the
nursing staff when they leave the ward so that staff can take over.
B. Routinely offer the patient a bolus and document this clearly.
C. Contact the pain team/anaesthetist to discuss the situation and suggest that the means of delivery are
changed.
D. The patient has paracetamol q.d.s. written up, so this should be adequate pain relief.

10. What specifically do you need to monitor to avoid complications and ensure optimal nutritional status in patients being enterally fed?
A. Blood glucose levels, full blood count, stoma site and bodyweight.
B. Eye sight, hearing, full blood count, lung function and stoma site.
C. Assess swallowing, patient choice, fluid balance, capillary refill time.
D. Daily urinalysis, ECG, protein levels and arterial pressure.

11. Perdue (2005) categorizes constipation as primary, secondary or iatrogenic. What could be some of the causes of iatrogenic constipation?
A. Inadequate diet and poor fluid intake.
B. Anal fissures, colonic tumours or hypercalcaemia.
C. Lifestyle changes and ignoring the urge to defaecate.
D. Antiemetic or opioid medication.

12. In which of the following situations might nitrous oxide (Entonox) be considered?
A. A wound dressing change for short-term pain relief or the removal of a chest drain for reduction of anxiety.
B. Turning a patient who has bowel obstruction because there is an expectation that they may have pain from
pathological fractures.
C. For pain relief during the insertion of a chest drain for the treatment of a pneumothorax.
D. For pain relief during a wound dressing for a patient who has had radical head and neck cancer that involved
the jaw.

13. Why is it essential to humidify oxygen used during respiratory therapy?
A. Oxygen is a very hot gas so if humidification isn’t used, the oxygen will burn the respiratory tract and cause
considerable pain for the patient when they breathe.
B. Oxygen is a dry gas which can cause evaporation of water from the respiratory tract and lead to thickened
mucus in the airways, reduction of the movement of cilia and increased susceptibility to respiratory infection.
C. Humidification cleans the oxygen as it is administered to ensure it is free from any aerobic pathogens before it
is inhaled by the patient.
D. Humidifying oxygen adds hydrogen to it, which makes it easier for oxygen to be absorbed to the blood in the
lungs. This means the cells that need it for intracellular function have their needs met in a more timely
manner.

14. You are currently on placement in the emergency department (ED). A 55-year-old city worker is bluelighted into the ED having had a cardiorespiratory arrest at work. The paramedics have been resuscitating him for 3 minutes. On arrival, he is in ventricular fibrillation. Your mentor asks you the following question prior to your shift starting: What will be the most important part of the patient’s immediate advanced life support?
A. Early defibrillation to restart the heart.
B. Early cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
C. Administration of adrenaline every 3 minutes.
D. Correction of reversible causes of hypoxia.

15. What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids frequently?
A. Respiratory rate, bowel movement record and pain assessment and score.
B. Checking the patent is not addicted by looking at their blood pressure.
C. Lung function tests, oxygen saturations and addiction levels.
D. Daily completion of a Bristol stool chart, urinalysis, and a record of the frequency with which the patient
reports breakthrough pain.

16. What does the term ‘breakthrough pain’ mean, and what type of prescription would you expect for it?
A. A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short-lived exacerbation of pain, with a prescription
that has no regular time of administration of analgesia.
B. Pain on movement which is short-lived, with a q.d.s. prescription, when necessary.
C. Pain that is intense, unexpected, in a location that differs from that previously assessed, needing a review
before a prescription is written.
D. A patient who has adequately controlled pain relief with short-lived exacerbation of pain, with a prescription
that has 4-hourly frequency of analgesia if necessary.

17. A patient in your care knocks their head on the bedside locker when reaching down to pick up something they have dropped. What do you do?
A. Let the patient’s relatives know so that they don’t make a complaint and write an incident report for yourself
so you remember the details in case there are problems in the future.
B. Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, commence neurological observations and ask the patient’s
doctor to come and review them, checking the injury isn’t serious. When this has taken place, write up what
happened and any future care in the nursing notes.
C. Discuss the incident with the nurse in charge, and contact your union representative in case you get into
trouble.
D. Help the patient to a safe comfortable position, take a set of observations and report the incident to the
nurse in charge who may call a doctor. Complete an incident form. At an appropriate time, discuss the
incident with the patient and, if they wish, their relatives.

18. You are caring for a patient with a tracheostomy in situ who requires frequent suctioning. How long should you suction for?
A. If you preoxygenate the patient, you can insert the catheter for 45 seconds.
B. Never insert the catheter for longer than 10–15 seconds.
C. Monitor the patient’s oxygen saturations and suction for 30 seconds.
D. Suction for 50 seconds and send a specimen to the laboratory if the secretions are purulent.

19. You are caring for a patient in isolation with suspected Clostridium difficile. What are the essential key actions to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Regular hand hygiene and the promotion of the infection prevention link nurse role.
B. Encourage the doctors to wear gloves and aprons, to be bare below the elbow and to wash hands with
alcohol handrub. Ask for cleaning to be increased with soap-based products.
C. Ask the infection prevention team to review the patient’s medication chart and provide regular teaching
sessions on the ‘5 moments of hand hygiene’. Provide the patient and family with adequate information.
D. Review antimicrobials daily, wash hands with soap and water before and after each contact with the patient,
ask for enhanced cleaning with chlorine-based products and use gloves and aprons when disposing of body
fluids.

20. What steps would you take if you had sustained a needlestick injury?
A. Ask for advice from the emergency department, report to occupational health and fill in an incident form.
B. Gently make the wound bleed, place under running water and wash thoroughly with soap and water.
Complete an incident form and inform your manager. Co-operate with any action to test yourself or the
patient for infection with a bloodborne virus but do not obtain blood or consent for testing from the patient
yourself; this should be done by someone not involved in the incident.
C. Take blood from patient and self for Hep B screening and take samples and form to Bacteriology. Call your
union representative for support. Make an appointment with your GP for a sickness certificate to take time off
until the wound site has healed so you don’t contaminate any other patients.
D. Wash the wound with soap and water. Cover any wound with a waterproof dressing to prevent entry of any
other foreign material. Wear gloves while working until the wound has healed to prevent contaminating any
other patients. Take any steps to have the patient or yourself tested for the presence of a bloodborne virus.

21. A patient needs weighing, as he is due a drug that is calculated on bodyweight. He experiences a lot of pain on movement so is reluctant to move, particularly stand up. What would you do?
A. Document clearly in the patient’s notes that a weight cannot be obtained.
B. Offer the patient pain relief and either use bed scales or a hoist with scales built in.
C. Discuss the case with your colleagues and agree to guess his bodyweight until he agrees to stand and use the
chair scales.
D. Omit the drug as it is not safe to give it without this information; inform the doctor and document your
actions.

22. Fred is going to receive a blood transfusion. How frequently should we do his observations?
A. Temperature and pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour, and at the end of bag/unit.
B. Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood transfusion begins, then after 15
minutes, then as indicated in local guidelines, and finally at the end of the bag/unit.
C. Temperature, pulse, blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the blood transfusion, then at end
of bag.
D. Pulse, blood pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag.

23. A patient’s daughter wants to visit her mom in the hospital, she has been experiencing diarrhea, what will you advise her?
A. advise to visit when she feels better
B. advise her that she can visit when she is 48 hours symptom free?
C. she can visit when she is fully recovered
D. None of the above

24. Before administering Digoxin, you must check specifically for what?
A. Breathing C. Temperature
B. Heart Rate D. LOC

25. Which law provides communication aid to patient with disability?
A. Communication Act B. Equality Act C. Mental Capacity Act D.Children and Family Act

26. Which medicine does digoxin interact with?
A. NSAID
B. rasagiline
C. amoxicillin
D. Anticoagulants

27. Patient has Low BMI but patient thinks she is fat- to whom should you refer?
A. dietician B. mental health C. Professional D. GP

28. You are caring for a patient with a history of COAD who is requiring 70% humidified oxygen via a facemask. You are monitoring his response to therapy by observing his colour, degree of respiratory distress and respiratory rate. The patient’s oxygen saturations have been between 95% and 98%. In addition, the doctor has been taking arterial blood gases. What is the reason for this?
A. Oximeters may be unreliable under certain circumstances, e.g. if tissue perfusion is poor, if the environment
is cold and if the patient’s nails are covered with nail polish.
B. Arterial blood gases should be sampled if the patient is receiving >60% oxygen.
C. Pulse oximeters provide excellent evidence of oxygenation, but they do not measure the adequacy of
ventilation.
D. Arterial blood gases measure both oxygen and carbon dioxide levels and therefore give an indication of both
ventilation and oxygenation.

29. You are looking after a 75-year-old woman who had an abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. What would you do to reduce the risk of her developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Give regular analgesia to ensure she has adequate pain relief so she can mobilize as soon as possible. Advise
her not to cross her legs.
B. Make sure that she is fitted with properly fitting antiembolic pressure stockings that are removed daily.
C. Ensure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings and that she is prescribed prophylactic anticoagulation and is
doing hourly limb exercises.
D. Give adequate analgesia so she can mobilize to the chair with assistance, give subcutaneous low molecular
weight heparin as prescribed. Make sure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings.

30.When using nasal cannulae, the maximum oxygen flow rate that should be used is 6 litres/min. Why?
A. Nasal cannulae are only capable of delivering an inspired oxygen concentration between 24% and 40%.
B. For any given flow rate, the inspired oxygen concentration will vary between breaths, as it depends upon the
rate and depth of the patient’s breath and the inspiratory flow rate.
C. Higher rates can cause nasal mucosal drying and may lead to epistaxis.
D. If oxygen is administered at greater than 40% it should be humidified. You cannot humidify oxygen via nasal
cannulae

31. You are looking after an emaciated 80-year-old man who has been admitted to your ward with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive airways disease (COPD). He is currently so short of breath that it is difficult for him to mobilize. What are some of the actions you take to prevent him developing a pressure ulcer?
A. He will be at high risk of developing a pressure ulcer so place him on a pressure relieving mattress.
B. Assess his risk of developing a pressure ulcer with a risk assessment tool. If indicated, procure an appropriate
pressure-relieving mattress for his bed and cushion for his chair. Reassess the patient’s pressure areas at least
twice a day and keep them clean and dry. Review his fluid and nutritional intake and support him to make
changes as indicated.
C. Assess his risk of developing a pressure ulcer with a risk assessment tool and reassess every week. Reduce his
fluid intake to avoid him becoming incontinent and the pressure areas becoming damp with urine.
D. He is at high risk of developing a pressure ulcer because of his recent acute illness, poor nutritional intake and
reduced mobility. By giving him his prescribed antibiotic therapy, referring him to the dietician and
physiotherapist, the risk will be reduced.

32. You are looking after a 76-year-old woman who has had a number of recent falls at home. What would you do to try and ensure her safety whilst she is in hospital?
A. Refer her to the physiotherapist and provide her with lots of reassurance as she has lost a lot of confidence
recently.
B. Make sure that the bed area is free of clutter. Place the patient in a bed near the nurses’ station so that you
can keep an eye on her. Put her on an hourly toileting chart. Obtain lying and standing blood pressures as
postural hypotension may be contributing to her falls.
C. Make sure that the bed area is free of clutter and that the patient can reach everything she needs, including
the call bell. Check regularly to see if the patient needs assistance mobilizing to the toilet. Ensure that she has
properly fitting slippers and appropriate walking aids.
D. Refer her to the community falls team who will assess her when she gets home.

33. Your patient has a bulky oesophageal tumour and is waiting for surgery. When he tries to eat, food gets stuck and gives him heartburn. What is the most likely route that will be chosen to provide him with the nutritional support he needs?
A. Nasogastric tube feeding.
B. Feeding via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG).
C. Feeding via a radiologically inserted gastrostomy (RIG).
D. Continue oral food.

34. A patient has been admitted for nutritional support and started receiving a hyperosmolar feed yesterday. He presents with diarrhoea but has no pyrexia. What is likely to be the cause?
A. The feed. C. Food poisoning.
B. An infection. D. Being in hospital.

35. What would you do if a patient with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy requires assistance cutting his toe nails?
A. Document clearly the reason for not cutting his toe nails and refer him to a chiropodist.
B. Document clearly the reason for not cutting his nails and ask the ward sister to do it.
C. Have a go and if you run into trouble, stop and refer to the chiropodist.
D. Speak to the patient’s GP to ask for referral to the chiropodist, but make a start while the patient is in
hospital.

36. If the prescribed volume is taken, which of the following types of feed will provide all protein, vitamins, minerals and trace elements to meet a patient’s nutritional requirements?
A. Protein shakes/supplements.
B. Sip feeds.
C. Energy drinks.
D. Mixed fat and glucose polymer solutions/powders.

37. On which step of the WHO analgesic ladder would you place tramadol and codeine?
A. Step 1: Non-Opioid Drugs. B. Step 2: Opioids for Mild to Moderate Pain.
C. Step 3: Opioids for Moderate to Severe Pain. D. Herbal medicine.
38. What would be your main objectives in providing stoma education when preparing a patient with a stoma for discharge home?
A. That the patient can independently manage their stoma, and can get supplies.
B. That the patient has had their appliance changed regularly, and knows their community stoma nurse.
C. That the patient knows the community stoma nurse, and has a prescription.
D. That the patient has a referral to the District Nurses for stoma care.

39. What type of diet would you recommend to your patient who has a newly formed stoma?
A. Encourage high-fibre foods to avoid constipation.
B. Encourage lots of vegetables and fruit to avoid constipation.
C. Encourage a varied diet as people can react differently.
D. Avoid spicy foods because they can cause erratic function.

40. Your patient has undergone a formation of a loop colostomy. What important considerations should be borne in mind when selecting an appropriate stoma appliance for your patient?
A. Dexterity of the patient, consistency of effluent, type of stoma.
B. Patient preference, type of stoma, consistence of effluent, state of peristomal skin, dexterity of patient.
C. Patient preference, lifestyle, position of stoma, consistency of effluent, state of peristomal skin, dexterity of
patient, type of stoma.
D. Cognitive ability, lifestyle, patient dexterity, position of stoma, state of peristomal skin, type of stoma,
consistency of effluent, patient preference.

41. Which of these is an example of an open question?
A. Are you feeling better today?
B. When you said you are hurt, what do you mean?
C. Can you tell me what is concerning you?
D. Is that what you are looking for?

42. Which of the following are barriers to effective communication?
A. Cultural differences
B. Unfamiliar accents
C. Overly technical language and terminology
D. Hearing problems
E. All of the above

43. What infection is thought to be caused by prions?
A. Leprosy
B. Pneumocystis jirovecii
C. Norovirus
D. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
E. None of the above

44. What are the most common effects of inactivity?
A. Pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection and fear of people.
B. Deep arterial thrombosis, respiratory infection, fear of movement, loss of consciousness, deconditioning of
cardiovascular system leading to an increased risk of angina.
C. Loss of weight, frustration and deep vein thrombosis.
D. Social isolation, loss of independence, exacerbation of symptoms, rapid loss of strength in leg muscles,
deconditioning of cardiovascular system leading to increased risk of chest infection, and pulmonary embolism.

45. Which of the following is a behavioural risk factor when assessing the potential risks of falling in an older person?
A. Poor nutrition/fluid intake
B. Poor heating
C. Foot problems
D. Fear of falling

46. When positioning the supine patient in bed, why should you ensure the patient is lying centrally in the bed?
A. To ensure spinal and limb alignment
B. To ensure patient comfort
C. To ensure the airway is patent
D. To minimize the risk of injury to the practitioner

47. In what instances shouldn’t you position a patient in a side-lying position?
A. If they are pregnant
B. If they have a spinal fracture
C. If they have pressure sores
D. If they have lower limb pain

48. What does ‘muscle atrophy’ mean?
A. Increase in muscle mass
B. Loss of muscle mass
C. A change in the shape of muscles
D. Disease of the muscle

49. Approximately how long is the spinal cord in an adult?
A. 30cm
B. 45cm
C. 60cm
D. 120cm

50. A new, postsurgical wound is assessed by the nurse and is found to be hot, tender and swollen. How could this wound be best described?
A. In the inflammation phase of healing.
B. In the haemostasis phase of healing.
C. In the reconstructive phase of wound healing.
D. As an infected wound.

NMC CBT Sample Questions and CBT Exam Practice 2

1. Effect of toxins released by Clostridium Difficile:
A. Ulcerative colitis C. Hashimotos Diseases
B. Crohn’s Disease D. Pseudomembranous Colitis

2. Where is the common aneurysm location for an elderly?
A. Abdominal B. Hepatic C. Renal D. loop of Willis

3. Patient’s husband died. The brother of the patient saw that she was upset but mentally and physically well. After a few weeks, the patient called her brother and said that her husband died yesterday, she verbalized “I didn’t know he was sick”. She also told her brother that she has been seeing mice and rats in the house. The pt. had difficulty sleeping, had incontinence and pain in urinating. A community nurse visited the patient. She observed that the patient is reclusive, passive but pleasant. What could be the problem?
A. delirium due to UTI C. onset of Alzheimer’s disease from dementia B. uncoping ability because her husband just died D. delayed bereavement due to dementia

4. Early signs of phlebitis would include
A. slight pain and redness B. increased WBC C. pyrexia D. swelling

5. Infected linen should be separated from soiled linen. What type of bag should be used?
A. white linen bag to be washed in high temperature C. red plastic bag to be incinerated
B. red linen bag to be washed in high temperature D. yellow plastic bag for disposal

6. What to teach a young patient when he is taking antibiotics
A. take it during morning and complete the dose C. don’t take it with alcohol
B. take it with food or after meal and complete dose D. medication may cause hypotension

7. What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of breath sit out in a chair?
A. They shouldn’t sit out in a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone with shortness of breath so that
there are no negative effects of gravity putting pressure on the lungs.
B. Sitting in a reclining position with the legs elevated to reduce the use of postural muscle oxygen
requirements, increasing lung volumes and optimizing perfusion for the best V/Q ratio. The patient should
also be kept in an environment that is quiet so they don’t expend any unnecessary energy.
C. The patient needs to be able to sit in a forward leaning position supported by pillows. They may also need
access to a nebulizer and humidified oxygen so they must be in a position where this is accessible without
being a risk to others.

D. There are two possible positions, either sitting upright or side lying. Which is used is determined by the age of
the patient. It is also important to remember that they will always need a nebulizer and oxygen and the ai
temperature must be below 20° C.

8. Normal HR of a 2-yr old child:
A. 70-130 per minute C. 80-150 per minute
B. 60-100 per minute D. 120-160 per minute

9. A doctor is about to apply oxygen therapy to patient via nasal cannula at 2L per minute when he was called for an emergency, and gave the task to you. However you are not trained. What should you do?
A. Inform your supervisor that the doctor left you to do it.
B. Apply the cannula since you have seen it done before.
C. Do not give because you’re not trained and assessed as competent.
D. Have a friend help you apply it.

10. Who should be responsible in proper disposal of sharps
A. healthcare assistant B. doctor C. registered nurse D. the professional who used the sharp

11. What is clinical benchmarking?
A. A systematic process in which current practice and care are compared to, and amended to attain, best
practice and care.
B. A system that provides a non-structured approach for realistic and supportive practice development.
C. The use of clinical data and process analysis to identify possible outcomes.
D. Is the process of comparing a practice’s performance with an external standard.

12. How long does the proliferation phase of a wound occur?
A. 3-24 days B. 5-21 days C. 4-18 days D. 3-30 days
13. Signs & Symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy:
• Light vaginal bleeding. • Nausea and vomiting with pain.
• Lower abdominal pain. • Sharp abdominal cramps.
• Pain on one side of your body. • Dizziness or weakness.
• Pain in your shoulder, neck, or rectum. • If the fallopian tube ruptures, the pain and bleeding could be
severe enough to cause fainting.
Which one is not a sign:
A. Vaginal bleeding C. Positive pregnancy test
B. Shoulder tip pain D. Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day

14. Scenario: You are the nurse in charge of the unit and you are accompanied by 4th year nursing students.
A. Allow students to give meds C. Get consent of patient
B. Assess competence of student D. Have direct supervision

15. Among the following drugs, which does not cause falls in an elderly?
A. Diuretics B. NSAIDS C. Beta blockers D. Hypnotics

16. Which is not a definition of an informed consent?
A. a decision to participate in research, taken by a competent individual who has received the necessary
information; who has adequately understood the information, and who, after considering the information,
has arrived at a decision without having been subjected to coercion, undue influence or inducement, or
intimidation.
B. a process for getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a person
C. the process by which the treating health care provider discloses appropriate information to a competent
patient so that the patient may make a voluntary choice to accept or refuse treatment.
D. For consent to be valid, it must be involuntary and informed, and the person consenting must have the
capacity to make the decision.

17. What is Supportive Communication?
A. To listen and clarify using close-ended questions
B. A communication that seeks to preserve a positive relationship between the communicators while still
addressing the problem at hand.
C. It involves a self-perceived flaw that an individual refuses to admit to another person, a sensitivity to that
flaw, and an attack by another person that focuses on the flaw.
D. the face-to-face process of interacting that focuses on advancing the physical and emotional well-being of a
patient.

18. Patient had CVA and can’t speak nor read. What does the loss of speech mean?
A. Dysphagia B. Progressive Aphasia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia

19. 5 moments of hand hygience include all of the ff except:
A. Before Patient Contact
B. Before a clean / aseptic procedure
C. Before Body Fluid Exposure Risk
D. After Patient contact
E. After Contact with Patient’s surrounding

20. All are purposes of NMC except:
A. NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
B. It sets standards of education, training, conduct and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver
high quality healthcare throughout their careers.
C. It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold its professional
standards.
D. It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings.

21. All but one are Nursing teachings for patients taking Allopurinol:
A. Instruct patient to take the drug after meals;
B. Educate patient that he may experience these side effects: nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite; drowsiness
C. Encourage patient to report unusual bleeding or bruising; fever, chills; gout attack; numbness or tingling; flank
pain, skin rash.

D. instruct patient to chew medication

22. Select which is not a proper way of Administering Eye Drops?
A. Administer the prescribed number of drops, holding the eye dropper 1–2 cm above the eye. If the patient
links or closes their eye, repeat the procedure
B. Ask the patient to close their eyes and keep them closed for 1–2 minutes.
C. If administering both drops and ointment, administer ointment first.
D. Ask the patient to sit back with neck slightly hyperextended or lie down.

23. How should we transport controlled drugs? Select which does not apply:
A. Controlled drugs should be transferred in a secure, locked or sealed, tamper-evident container.
B. A person collecting controlled drugs should be aware of safe storage and security and the importance of
handing over to an authorized person to obtain a signature.
C. Have valid ID badge
D. None of the above

24. In a patient with hourly monitoring, when does a nurse formally document the monitoring?
A. Every hour C. When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition B. At the end of the shift D. Mid of shift

25. Appropriate wound dressing criteria includes all but one:
A. Allows gaseous exchange.
B. Maintains optimum temperature and pH in the wound.
C. Forms an effective barrier to
D. Allows removal of the dressing without pain or skin stripping.
E. Is non-absorbent

26. Signs of denture related stomatitis
A. whiteness on the tongue C. patches of shiny redness on the cheek and tongue
B. patches of shiny redness on the palette and gums D. patches of shiny redness on the tongue

27. When do you plan a discharge?
A. 24 hrs within admission C. 48 hrs within admission
B. 72 hrs within admission D. 12 hrs within admission

28. Postpartum haemorrhage: A patient gave birth via NSD. After 48 hours, patient came back due to bleeding, bleeding after birth is called post partumhaemorrhage. What type?
A. primary post partumhaemorrhage C. secondary post partumhaemorrhage B. tertiary postpartum haemorrhage D. lochia

29. The AVPU scale means:
A. Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive C. Awake, Verbal, Pain, Unconscious
B. Alert, verbal, Pressure, Unconscious D. Awake, Verbal, Pressure, Unresponsive

30. Management in Blood Transfusion Reaction would include the ff but:
A. Close IV line
B. Disconnect pack from patient.
C. Complete Transfusion Reaction Report Form.
D. Obtain blood/urine samples as directed.
E. Send pack, Transfusion Reaction Report Form and samples to hospital Blood Bank

31. Which of the ff is not a cause of gingival bleeding?
A. Vigorous brushing of teeth C. Vitamin deficiency (Vitamins C and K)
B. Intake of blood thinning medications (warfarin, aspirin, and heparin) D. Lifestyle

32. Your patient has bronchitis and has difficulty in clearing his chest. What position would help to maximize the drainage of secretions?
A. Lying flat on his back while using a nebulizer.
B. Sitting up leaning on pillows and inhaling humidified oxygen.
C. Lying on his side with the area to be drained uppermost after the patient has had humidified air.
D. Standing up in fresh air taking deep breaths.

33. Signs of denture-related stomatitis include all except:
A. Redness underneath the area where the dentures are placed
B. Red sores at the corners of lips or on the roof of the mouth
C. Presence of white patches inside the mouth
D. Gingivitis

34. Which of the ff should be considered before giving digoxin?
1. Allergies
2. Drug interactions
3. Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
4. Medical problems (Thyroid problem, Kidney disease, etc.)
A. 1&2 B. 3&4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. All of the above

35. Signs of hypovolemic shock would include all except:
A. restlessness, anxiety or confusion
B. shallow respiratory rate, becoming weak
C. rising pulse rate
D. low urine output of <0.5 mL/kg/h E. pallor (pale, cyanotic skin) and later sweating 36. All but one are signs of opioid toxicity: A. CNS depression (coma) B. Pupillary miosis C. Respiratory depression (cyanosis) D. Tachycardia 37. Patient had undergone post lumbar tap and is exhibiting increase HR, decrease BP, and alteration in consciousness and dilated pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing? A. Headache B. Shock C. Brain herniation D. Hypotension 38. NMC defines record keeping as all of the following except: A. Helping to improve advocacy B. Showing how decisions related to patient care were made C. Supporting effective clinical judgements and decisions D. Helping in identifying risks, and enabling early detection of complications 39. How to position patient for abdominal tap A. Supine B. Prone C. Supine with HOB 40-50 degree elevated D. Sitting 40. Initial intervention when a patient collapsed: A. Call a code B. Check for responsiveness C. Check if the scene is safe D. Assess VS 41. Revisions should be included in what nursing process? A. Assessment B. Planning C. Intervention D. Evaluation 42. Which is not part of tuckman's team formation A. norming B. storming C. forming D. accepting 43. Patient had CVA, who will assess swallowing capability? A. physiotherapy nurse B. psychotherapy nurse C. speech and language therapist D. neurologic nurse 44. What is the most common cause of hypotension in elderly? A. Decrease response in adrenaline & noradrenaline C. Hyperglycemia B. Atheroma changes in vessel walls D. Age 45. The best way to verify enteral tube prior to feeding: A. Abdominal xray C. Introduce air B. Aspirate gastric content ph<4 D. Immerse in a basin of water 46. What is not a good route for IM injection? A. upper arm B. stomach C. thigh D. buttocks 47. What angle to inject via subcutaneous route? A. 90 B. 45 C. 60 D. 15 48. Causes of gingival bleeding A. poor removal plaque B. poor flossing C. poor nutrition D. poor taking of drugs 49. Describe the breathing pattern when a patient is suffering from Opioid toxicity: A. Slow and shallow B. fast and shallow C. slow and deep D. Fast and deep 50. Information can be disclosed in all cases except: A. When effectively anonymized. B. When the information is required by law or under a court order. C. In identifiable form, when it is required for a specific purpose, with the individual’s written consent or with support under the Health Service D. In Child Protection proceedings if it is considered that the information required is in the public or child’s interest.

NMC CBT Sample Questions and CBT Exam Practice 1

Disclaimer: Note that these questions are just sample questions to help you to pass the NMC CBT exam

1. Which is not a cause of postural hypotension?
A. the time of day B. lack of exercise C. temperature D. recent food intake

2. Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?
A. Headache B. Back pain C. Swelling and bruising D. Nausea and vomiting

3. A client was diagnosed to have infection. What is not a sign or symptom of infection?
A. A temperature of more than 38°C C. Chills and sweats
B. warm skin D. Aching muscles

4. What is respiration?
A. the movement of air into and out of the lungs to continually refresh the gases there, commonly called ‘breathing’
B. movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood, and carbon dioxide from the lungs into the blood, commonly called ‘gaseous exchange’
C. movement of oxygen from blood to the cells, and of carbon dioxide from the cells to the blood
D. the transport of oxygen from the outside air to the cells within tissues, and the transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.

5. You noticed that a colleague committed a medication administration error. Which should be done in this situation?
A. You should provide a written statement and also complete a Trust incident form.
B. You should inform the doctor.
C. You should report this immediately to the nurse in charge.
D. You should inform the patient.

6. A patient on your ward complains that her heart is ‘racing’ and you find that the pulse is too fast to the manually palpate. What would your actions be?
A. Shout for help and run to collect the crash trolley.
B. patient to calm down and check her most recent set of bloods and fluid balance.
C. A full set of observations: blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation and temperature. It is essential to perform a 12 lead ECG. The patient should then be reviewed by the doctor.
D. Check baseline observations and refer to the cardiology team.

7. You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their observations, you discover that they are tachycardic and anxious, with an increased respiratory rate. What could be happening? What would you do?
A. The patient is showing symptoms of hypovolaemic shock. Investigate source of fluid loss, administer fluid replacement and get medical support.
B. The patient is demonstrating symptoms of atelectasis. Administer a nebulizer, refer to physiotherapist for assessment.
C. The patient is demonstrating symptoms of uncontrolled pain. Administer prescribed analgesia, seek assistance from medical team.
D. The patient is demonstrating symptoms of hyperventilation. Offer reassurance, administer oxygen.

8. Why are elderly prone to postural hypotension? Select which does not apply:
A. The baroreflex mechanisms which control heart rate and vascular resistance decline with age.
B. Because of medications and conditions that cause hypovolaemia.
C. Because of less exercise or activities.
D. Because of a number of underlying problems with BP control.

9. When do you see problems or potential problems?
A. Assessment B. Planning C. Implementation D. Evaluation

10. A COPD patient is about to be discharged from the hospital. What is the best health teaching to provide this patient?
A. Increase fluid intake C. Quit smoking
B. Do not use home oxygen D. nebulize as needed

11. A patient is to be subjected for surgery but the patient’s BMI is low. Where will you refer the patient?
A. Speech and Language Therapist C. Chef
B. Dietitian D. Family member

12. All of the staff nurses on duty noticed that a newly hired staff nurse has been selective of her tasks. All of them thought that she has a limited knowledge of the procedures. What should the manager do in this situation?
A. Reprimand the new staff nurse in front of everyone that what she is doing is unacceptable.
B. Call the new nurse and talk to her privately; ask how the manager can be of help to improve her situation.
C. Ignore the incident and just continue with what she was doing.
D. Assign someone to guide the new staff nurse until she is competent in doing her tasks.

13. One busy day on your shift, a manager told you that all washes should be done by 10am. What would you do?
A. Follow the manager and ensure that everything is done on time.
B. Talk to the manager and tell her that the quality of care will be compromised if washes are rushed.
C. Ignore the manager and just continue with what you are doing.
D. Provide a written statement of the incident.

14. What do you have to consider if you are obtaining a consent from the patient?
A. Understanding B. Capacity C. Intellect D. Patient’s condition

15. A nurse documented on the wrong chart. What should the nurse do?
A. Immediately inform the nurse in charge and tell her to cross it all off.
B. Throw away the page
C. Write line above the writing; put your name, job title, date, and time.
D. Ignore the incident.

16. A patient is in the immediate recovery post-surgery. What should you monitor?
A. Breathing B. Temperature C. Blood loss D. Pain

17. You have a DM patient who is non-insulin dependent. How many portions of fruits and vegetables will you administer per day?
A. 3 portions B. 4 portions C. 5 portions D. 6 portions

18. A newly qualified nurse is not yet well versed when it comes to documentation. A nurse-in-charge noticed that this is the case and went to report the new nurse to their manager. What could the newly qualified nurse have done in order to prevent this incident?
A. Ignore the report and just continue with what she was doing.
B. She could have told the manager beforehand in order to have a support and additional training.
C. Apologize that she was not able to inform her immediate head beforehand.
D. Ask for the policies of the hospital in relation to documentation.

19. What ABG readings will you expect among COPD patients?
A. Increased PCO2, decreased PO2 C. Increased PCO2 & PO2
B. Decreased PCO2 & PO2 D. Decreased PCO2, increased PO2

20. A patient was brought to the A&E and manifested several symptoms: loss of intellect and memory; change in personality; loss of balance and co-ordination; slurred speech; vision problems and blindness; and abnormal jerking movements. Upon laboratory tests, the patient got tested positive for prions. Which disease is the patient possibly having?
A. Acute Gastroenteritis C. HIV/AIDS
B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease D. Hepatitis

21. All are risk factors of Coronary Artery Disease except:
A. Obesity B. Smoking C. High Blood Pressure D. Female

22. When would it be beneficial to use a wound care plan?
A. On all chronic wounds C. On all infected wounds
B. On all complex wounds D. On every wound

23. What factors are essential in demonstrating supportive communication to patients?
A. Listening, clarifying the concerns and feelings of the patient using open questions.
B. Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using closed questions.
C. Listening, clarifying the physical needs of the patient using open questions.
D. Listening, reflecting back the patient’s concerns and providing a solution.

24. How do you value dignity & respect in nursing care? Select which does not apply:
A. We value every patient, their families or carers, or staff.
B. We respect their aspirations and commitments in life, and seek to understand their priorities, needs, abilities and limits.
C. We find time for patients, their families and carers, as well as those we work with.
D. We are honest and open about our point of view and what we can and cannot do.

25. When dealing with a patient who has a biohazard specimen, how will you ensure proper disposal? Select which does not apply:
A. the specimen must be labelled with a biohazard
B. the specimen must be labelled with danger of infection
C. it must be in a double self-sealing bag
D. it must be transported to the laboratory in a secure box with a fastenable lid

26. For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key preventative measure? A. Airborne B. Direct Contact C. Droplet D. All of the above

27. What may not be cause of diarrheoa?
A. colitis B. intestinal obstruction C. food allergy D. food poisoning

28. What is the most definitive sign/complication 24 hours after liver biopsy?
A. intraperitoneal haemorrhage C. biliary peritonitis
B. infection D. referred pain

29. UK policy for needle prick injury inclues all but one:
A. Encourage the wound to bleed C. Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
B. Suck the wound D. Don’t scrub the wound while washing it

30. The following fruits can be eaten by a person with Crohn’s Disease except:
A. Mango B. Papaya C. Strawberries D. Cantaloupe

31. A patient was recommended to undergo lumbar puncture. As the nurse caring for this patient, what should you not expect as its complications:
A. Swelling and bruising B. Headache C. Back pain D. Infection

32. Mrs Jones has had a cerebral vascular accident, so her left leg is increased in tone, very stiff and difficult to position comfortably when she is in bed. What would you do?
A. Give Mrs Jones analgesia and suggest she sleeps in the chair.
B. Try to diminish increased tone by avoiding extra stimulation by ensuring her foot doesn’t come into contact with the end of the bed; supporting, with a pillow, her left leg in side lying and keeping the knee flexed.
C. Give Mrs Jones diazepam and tilt the bed.
D. Suggest a warm bath before she lies on the bed. Then use pillows to support the stiff limb.

33. A patient is agitated and is unable to settle. She is also finding it difficult to sleep, reporting that she is in pain. What would you do at this point?
A. Ask her to score her pain, describe its intensity, duration, the site, any relieving measures and what makes it worse, looking for non-verbal clues, so you can determine the appropriate method of pain management.
B. Give her some sedatives so she goes to sleep.
C. Calculate a pain score, suggest that she takes deep breaths, reposition her pillows, return in 5 minutes to gain a comparative pain score.
D. Give her any analgesia she is due. If she hasn’t any, contact the doctor to get some prescribed. Also give her a warm milky drink and reposition her pillows. Document your action.

34. A patient has been confined in bed for months now and has developed pressure ulcers in the buttocks area. When you checked the waterlow it is at level 20. Which type of bed is best suited for this patient?
A. water mattress B. Egg crater mattress C. air mattresses D. Dynamic mattress

35. What is positive fluid balance?
A. A deficit in fluid volume.
B. A state when fluid intake is greater than output.
C. Retention of both electrolytes and water in proportion to the levels in the extracellular fluid.
D. A state where the body has less water than it needs to function properly.

36. How should you position a patient after lumbar puncture?
A. flat on bed C. semi-fowlers
B. fowlers D. side-lying

37. Why would the intravenous route be used for the administration of medications?
A. It is a useful form of medication for patients who refuse to take tablets because they don’t want to comply with treatment.
B. It is cost effective because there is less waste as patients forget to take oral medication.
C. The intravenous route reduces the risk of infection because the drugs are made in a sterile environment and kept in aseptic conditions.
D. The intravenous route provides an immediate therapeutic effect and gives better control of the rate of administration as a more precise dose can be calculated so treatment can be more reliable.

38. A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you expect to see?
A. The patient will have a low blood pressure and will have a fast heart rate usually associated with skin and mucosal changes.
B. The patient will have a high blood pressure and will have a fast heart rate
C. The patient will quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to their airway or circulation. This is accompanied by skin and mucosal changes.
D. The patient will experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate and be itchy all over.

39. When is the time to take the vital signs of the patients? Select which does not apply:
A. At least once every 12 hours, unless specified otherwise by senior staff.

B. When they are admitted or initially assessed.
C. On transfer to a ward setting from critical care or transfer from one ward to another.
D. Every four hours.

40. What are the principles of gaining informed consent prior to planned surgery?
A. Gaining permission for an imminent procedure by providing information in medical terms, ensuring a patient knows the potential risks and intended benefits.
B. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information, both verbally and with written material, relating to the planned procedure, for them to read on the day of planned surgery.
C. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by informing them about the procedure and highlighting risks if the procedure is not carried out.
D. Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information in understandable terms prior to surgery, allowing time for answering questions, and inviting voluntary participation.

41. What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of breath sit out in a chair?
A. They shouldn’t sit out in a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone with shortness of breath so that there are no negative effects of gravity putting pressure on the lungs.
B. Sitting in a reclining position with the legs elevated to reduce the use of postural muscle oxygen requirements, increasing lung volumes and optimizing perfusion for the best V/Q ratio. The patient should also be kept in an environment that is quiet so they don’t expend any unnecessary energy.
C. The patient needs to be able to sit in a forward leaning position supported by pillows. They may also need access to a nebulizer and humidified oxygen so they must be in a position where this is accessible without being a risk to others.
D. There are two possible positions, either sitting upright or side lying. Which is used is determined by the age of the patient. It is also important to remember that they will always need a nebulizer and oxygen and the air temperature must be below 20° C.

42. If you were told by a nurse at handover to take ‘standard precautions’, what would you expect to be doing?
A. Taking precautions when handling blood and ‘high risk’ body fluids so as not to pass on any infection to the patient.
B. Wearing gloves, an apron and a mask when caring for someone in protective isolation.
C. Asking relatives to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical setting.
D. Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing gloves and an apron when necessary, disposing of used sharp instruments safely, and providing care in a suitably clean environment to protect yourself and the patients.

43. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What would you do?
A. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. Make sure to fill out an incident form.
B. Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist on duty.

C. Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren’t found the police need to be informed.
D. Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. Make sure to fill out an incident form.

44. The following are signs & symptoms of hypovolemic shock, except:
A. Confusion C. Strong pulse
B. Rapid heart rate D. Decrease Blood Pressure

45. The following must be considered in procuring a consent, except:
A. respect and support people’s rights to accept or decline treatment or care
B. withhold people’s rights to be fully involved in decisions about their care
C. be aware of the legislation regarding mental capacity
D. gain consent before treatment or care starts

46. Which is not an appropriate way to care for patients with Dementia/Alzheimer’s?
A. Ensure people with dementia are excluded from services because of their diagnosis, age, or any learning disability.
B. Encourage the use of advocacy services and voluntary support.
C. Allow people with dementia to convey information in confidence.
D. Identify and wherever possible accommodate preferences (such as diet, sexuality and religion).

47. All but one, are characteristics of an ideal wound dressing:
A. Cost-effective B. allows gaseous exchange C. Low humidity D. absorbent

48. A 45-year old patient was diagnosed to have Piles (Haemorrhoids). During your health education with the patient, you informed him of the risk factors of Piles. You would tell him that it is caused by all of the following except:
A. Straining when passing stool
B. being overweight
C. Lack of fibre in the diet
D. prolonged walking

49. Which behaviours will encourage a patient to talk about their concerns?
A. Giving re assurance and telling them not to worry.
B. Asking the patient about their family and friends.
C. Tell the patient you are interested in what is concerning them and that you are available to listen.
D. Tell the patient you are interested in what is concerning them and if they tell you, they will feel better.

50. What is the difference between denial and collusion?
A. Denial is when a healthcare professional refuses to tell a patient their diagnosis for the protection of the patient whereas collusion is when healthcare professionals and the patient agree on the information to be told to relatives and friends.
B. Denial is when a patient refuses treatment and collusion is when a patient agrees to it.
C. Denial is a coping mechanism used by an individual with the intention of protecting themselves from painful or distressing information whereas collusion is the withholding of information from the patient with the intention of ‘protecting them’.
D. Denial is a normal acceptable response by a patient to a life threatening diagnosis whereas collusion is not.

Access to Nursing and Midwifery Course List of Colleges

If you have been out of formal education for more than three years and you are looking to pursue a degree in nursing but don’t yet have the necessary qualifications access to nursing course is the ideal course for you. The course is usually a fulltime course where you will be given the necessary education to progress onto the first year of a Nursing Degree. It is typically a one year program and most colleges begin their access to nursing and midwifery course in August/September each year. Below is the list of top colleges offering access to nursing and midwifery courses

Edinburg College Access to Nursing course more information click Here

Glasgow Cylde Access to Nursing course more information click Here

For West College Scotland Access to Nursing course more information click Here
For Sunderland College Nursing course more information click Here
Bedford College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

York College Access to Nursing course more information click Here

Central Nottingham Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

City College Plymouth Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

Salford College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

Harrow College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

West Themes Access to Nursing Course more information clickHere

West Herts College Access to Nursing course more information click Here

South Themes College Access to Nursing Courses more information click Here

Inverness College UHI Access in Nursing Coursemore information click Here
Guildford College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

Truro and Penwith College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here
West King College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

Barnet and Southgate Access to Nursing Course more information click Here
South Lanarkshire College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

West Lothian College Access to Nursing course more information click Here
Bolton College Access to Nursing course more information click Here

Derby College Access to Nursing course more information click Here

Southampton City College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

Kingston College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

Northampton College Access to Nursing course more information click Here

Dudley College Access to Nursing Course more information click Here

Newcastle College Access to Nursing course more information click Here